Refuting Troy Salinger’s “blog” About My Video. “Is Jesus the Word of YHVH?” Looking At The Hebrew.

When Personal Attacks Masquerade as Biblical Scholarship: A Response to Troy Salinger

Troy Salinger begins his article with an interesting admission. He announces that his response will be “highly polemical” and unusually personal because, apparently, my claims are so extraordinary that they demand such treatment. How convenient. Before offering a single grammatical argument, examining one Hebrew construction, or presenting any lexical evidence, Troy has already decided that personal attacks are an appropriate substitute for serious biblical engagement. Article linke here: https://letthetruthcomeoutblog.wordpress.com/2026/10/09/a-rebuttal-of-al-garzas-video-is-jesus-the-word-of-yhvh-looking-at-the-hebrew/?fbclid=IwY2xjawU3iqhleHRuA2FlbQIxMQBwZG9mBXNydGMGYXBwX2lkEDIyMjAzOTE3ODgyMDA4OTIAAR49i8xOc3ShYJsQC6yADiqt4YBtK0xHQ6dRSQYx_DHkBSS29Jwvb_UBoBgAmw_aem_hHGzoUPexIp1t6bZ_q1jQw

And this is supposed to be a scholarly rebuttal?

Troy immediately characterizes my presentation as “pretentious rhetoric,” accusing me of believing that my knowledge of Biblical Hebrew places my interpretations beyond meaningful challenge. Unfortunately for Troy, assigning motives to someone is not the same as demonstrating that their arguments are incorrect. In academic discourse, we generally expect a critic to establish what an author actually argues before attempting to refute it. Apparently, Troy prefers to skip that inconvenient step.

Let me make something perfectly clear: Knowing Biblical Hebrew does not automatically make someone’s interpretation correct. However, not knowing Biblical Hebrew certainly does not place someone in an advantageous position to correct arguments involving Hebrew morphology, syntax, and grammatical constructions. That should hardly be controversial.

My argument has never been that studying Hebrew makes someone infallible. Rather, my point is that when individuals make confident assertions about what a Hebrew passage supposedly means, they should possess sufficient linguistic competence to defend those assertions from the Hebrew text itself. This is not intellectual arrogance. It is a basic expectation of responsible biblical interpretation.

Troy then ventures into the remarkable accusation that I must believe my interpretations are “universally accepted by all trinitarians.” Where exactly did I make this claim? In what video did I argue that every Trinitarian Hebrew scholar agrees with me? Troy provides no quotation, timestamp, or supporting evidence. Instead, he constructs an imaginary position, attributes it to me, and prepares to refute it.

This is a textbook straw-man fallacy. My argument does not require universal agreement among Trinitarian scholars, nor does scholarly disagreement automatically invalidate a grammatical argument. Hebrew syntax is not determined by theological majority vote. Whether scholars agree or disagree with my conclusions, their interpretations must still be evaluated against the linguistic and contextual evidence.

The irony becomes especially apparent when Troy accuses me of letting theological presuppositions determine my reading of Scripture. That is a legitimate concern in biblical studies, but merely announcing that someone is reading their theology into the text does not establish that they are. Troy must show where I have incorrectly identified a Hebrew form, violated a syntactical principle, misapplied a lexical definition, or drawn an inference the passage cannot sustain.

Those are the questions that matter.

My video examines the Word of YHVH (דבר־יהוה) and whether certain Hebrew narratives present the Word as personally distinguishable from YHVH. This involves evaluating the Hebrew construct relationship, the verbal predicates associated with the Word, the narrative presentation of divine speech and appearance, and the broader literary context. The construct construction alone does not settle every theological question; one must consider the full grammatical and contextual evidence within the narrative.

These are legitimate questions of Hebrew grammar and exegesis. They cannot be dismissed simply by describing my conclusions as “idiosyncratic.”

If Troy believes my interpretation is grammatically incorrect, then he should identify the specific grammatical error and demonstrate why it is wrong. If he believes my syntactical analysis is defective, he should supply the correct analysis. If he believes the relevant Hebrew passages cannot support personal distinction, he should establish that conclusion through careful examination of the text.

That is how a scholarly rebuttal works.

Instead, his opening paragraphs tell readers considerably more about what Troy thinks of me than about what the Hebrew text actually says. His criticism is rich in psychological speculation, generous in personal accusations, and, at this stage, remarkably economical with linguistic evidence.

One would think that an article promising to expose my supposed grammatical incompetence might begin by demonstrating an actual grammatical mistake. But perhaps that would require engaging the Hebrew before engaging in character assassination.

Ultimately, I welcome substantive criticism of my interpretation. Biblical scholarship advances through careful analysis, competing arguments, and the examination of evidence. It does not advance, however, the assumption that calling someone pretentious somehow disproves their exegesis.

So, Troy, enough with the theatrical introduction. Show us the Hebrew. Identify the grammatical errors. Demonstrate the syntactical problems. Present the lexical evidence.

Until then, you have not refuted my argument. You have merely informed your readers that you dislike the person making it.

And frankly, that is not biblical scholarship. That is an opinion piece dressed in academic clothing.

Garza’s Purpose: Apparently, Asking a Question Is Now a Presupposition

Troy Salinger continues his criticism by quoting my stated purpose for the video: to examine the Hebrew expression “the Word of YHVH” and determine whether the biblical text presents the Word as a distinct person from YHVH and whether this figure could be identified with Jesus in the New Testament.

Thank you, Troy, for quoting my research question accurately. Unfortunately, what follows demonstrates a rather astonishing confusion between a research question, a theological hypothesis, and an exegetical conclusion. These concepts are not interchangeable, no matter how desperately Troy needs them to be.

Notice what I actually asked: Is the Word of YHVH a distinct person? Could this be Jesus in the Old Testament? These are questions requiring investigation of the biblical evidence. Yet Troy immediately announces that these questions reveal my underlying presupposition, which supposedly determines everything I teach.

Apparently, under Troy’s methodology, merely asking whether Scripture supports a particular interpretation proves that one has already predetermined the answer. What a remarkable approach to biblical scholarship! By that standard, no theologian, historian, or biblical scholar could investigate a hypothesis without automatically presupposing the conclusion.

But the problem becomes even more apparent when Troy writes:

“This is what drives all of his exegesis of scripture.”

Really, Troy? All of it? That is quite an extraordinary claim. Where is the evidence that every grammatical observation I make, every Hebrew construction I examine, and every syntactical relationship I identify is controlled by this theological conclusion? Once again, Troy provides an accusation without demonstrating it.

Let us examine what my argument actually involves.

The Hebrew expression דבר־יהוה (devar-YHVH) consists of the noun דבר (davar, “word”) in the construct state, followed by the divine name יהוה (YHVH). This is a construct relationship, commonly translated as “the Word of YHVH.”

The construct relationship itself does not automatically establish whether the Word is an impersonal communication or a personal figure. The surrounding narrative and context must answer that question, including the predicates associated with the Word, the speaker’s identity, and the relationship between the Word and YHVH within the discourse.

This distinction is fundamental to my argument, and it is precisely why I examine the Hebrew text rather than simply imposing a theological label on the expression.

Consider 1 Kings 19:9–11. In verse 9, the Hebrew narrative introduces the Word of YHVH coming to Elijah:

והנה דבר־יהוה אליו ויאמר לו

“And behold, the Word of YHVH came to him, and he said to him …”

The Word is introduced within a narrative of divine communication, followed by the masculine singular verbal form ויאמר (vayomer, “and he said”). The verbal form alone does not establish personal identity, since Hebrew can use such constructions in ordinary reports of divine speech. However, the narrative becomes particularly interesting in verse 11, where the speaker commands Elijah:

צא ועמדת בהר לפני יהוה

“Go out and stand on the mountain before YHVH.”

The passage then announces:

והנה יהוה עבר

“And behold, YHVH was passing by.”

Now we have an actual exegetical question. The Word of YHVH is introduced, the discourse proceeds through divine speech, and Elijah is instructed to stand before YHVH, who is subsequently described as passing by. Does this narrative distinguish the speaker from YHVH, or does it use a conventional form of third-person divine self-reference?

That is the question requiring analysis. A Trinitarian interpretation cannot simply assume the former, and a non-Trinitarian interpretation cannot simply assume the latter. Both must account for the grammatical and narrative evidence.

Likewise, 1 Samuel 3:21 states that YHVH revealed himself to Samuel at Shiloh בִּדְבַר יְהוָה (bidvar YHVH, “by the Word of YHVH”). Here the narrator explicitly associates YHVH’s appearance and self-revelation with the Word of YHVH. Context must establish whether this identifies the Word as a personal mediator or describes the means of prophetic revelation. Simply declaring that the Word can only mean an impersonal utterance does not settle the issue.

These passages present legitimate questions concerning Hebrew syntax, narrative discourse, and divine manifestation. They deserve serious examination.

And here is the point Troy conveniently overlooks: My argument is not that the Hebrew word דבר (davar) inherently means a divine person. My argument concerns whether particular biblical narratives present the Word of YHVH in a manner that supports personal distinction.

Those are two entirely different propositions.

Identifying the Word with Jesus involves a further question of canonical and theological interpretation. John 1:1 and 1:14 explicitly present the Word as personally related to God and subsequently becoming flesh. Whether particular Old Testament appearances should be connected with the Johannine Logos must be argued through the relevant texts. It cannot be established merely by pointing to the Hebrew noun דבר, nor dismissed by pretending that later biblical revelation is irrelevant to Christian theological interpretation.

Troy then concludes his section with perhaps his most revealing statement:

“It is my suspicion that the reason he pursued studies in the original language was to discover, in the grammar, ways to support and defend this presupposition.”

There it is. When the grammatical argument has not yet been addressed, apparently the next best strategy is to speculate about the personal motivations of the individual presenting it.

How very scholarly.

Troy admits that this is merely his “suspicion.” In other words, he has no demonstrated evidence for why I pursued biblical language studies, yet he considers his speculation important enough to include in an article supposedly devoted to refuting Hebrew exegesis.

This is a form of the genetic fallacy: attempting to undermine an argument by appealing to its alleged psychological or theological origins rather than evaluating whether its premises and conclusions are sound.

Even if someone began studying Hebrew specifically to investigate a theological belief, that fact would not determine whether their subsequent grammatical observations were correct. A person’s motivation cannot change the morphology of a Hebrew noun, the function of a construct relationship, or the syntactical features of a biblical narrative.

And let us apply Troy’s reasoning consistently. Does his own non-Trinitarian theological framework influence the questions he asks and the interpretations he favors? If so, does that automatically invalidate his conclusions? Of course not. He must evaluate his arguments on their merits, just as I must evaluate mine.

The issue is not whether an interpreter possesses theological commitments. The issue is whether those commitments are allowed to override the evidence of the text.

Troy has every opportunity to demonstrate that I have committed precisely such an error. He can identify a misparsed Hebrew verb, an incorrectly explained construct relationship, a mistaken antecedent, or an unjustified conclusion about a narrative participant’s identity.

Instead, he offers readers his personal theory about why I decided to study Hebrew.

Troy, I am not asking you to psychoanalyze my academic interests. I am asking you to engage the Hebrew text.

If my grammatical analysis is incorrect, show me where. If the Hebrew syntax contradicts my conclusions, explain how. If the narrative evidence does not support personal distinction, establish that exegetically.

But suggesting that my theological commitments somehow disqualify my interpretation, while leaving your own theological commitments conveniently outside the discussion, is neither consistent nor persuasive.

So far, Troy has attempted to establish my presuppositions without establishing my grammatical errors. Perhaps in the next section we will finally examine the Hebrew instead of another examination of my supposed motives.

Garza’s Method: When Basic Hebrew Grammar Becomes a Theological Threat

Troy Salinger now turns his attention to what he calls “Garza’s Method,” and once again, his criticism reveals more about his determination to discredit me than about any actual grammatical error in my presentation.

He begins by acknowledging that I distinguished between two Hebrew constructions: דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) and דִּבֶּר יְהוָה (dibber YHVH). The former is a nominal construct relationship, while the latter is a verbal clause.

So far, so good. Troy has correctly described the grammatical distinction I presented. One might reasonably expect him to demonstrate why my grammatical explanation is incorrect.

But apparently, that would be too straightforward.

Instead, Troy launches into several paragraphs speculating about what I supposedly believe concerning non-Trinitarians, Trinitarian scholars, and anyone who disagrees with my interpretation.

Remarkably, he discusses my supposed method without identifying a single error in the Hebrew morphology I presented.

Let us begin with the grammar Troy apparently finds so objectionable.

1. The Hebrew Distinction Is Grammatical, Not Imaginary

The expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) consists of two nominal elements:

  • דְּבַר (devar): a masculine singular noun in the construct state, meaning “word of.”
  • יְהוָה (YHVH): the divine proper name, functioning as the second member of the construct relationship.

Together, the expression means “the Word of YHVH.”

By contrast, דִּבֶּר יְהוָה (dibber YHVH) consists of a verb followed by its subject:

  • דִּבֶּר (dibber): Piel perfect, third-person masculine singular, meaning “he spoke.”
  • יְהוָה (YHVH): the grammatical subject performing the action.

Thus, the verbal construction means “YHVH spoke.”

Both forms derive from the Hebrew root דבר (D-B-R), but they are not grammatically interchangeable. One is a noun in a construct relationship; the other is a finite verb followed by its subject.

This is not some obscure Trinitarian grammatical innovation that I recently discovered buried beneath centuries of biblical scholarship. It is elementary Biblical Hebrew morphology.

For example, Deuteronomy 5:4 reads:

פנים בפנים דבר יהוה עמכם

“Face to face YHVH spoke with you.”

Here, דִּבֶּר (dibber) is a Piel perfect verb, and YHVH is its subject. The passage explicitly describes YHVH performing the action of speaking.

Now compare 1 Kings 19:9:

והנה דבר־יהוה אליו ויאמר לו

“And behold, the Word of YHVH [came] to him, and he said to him …”

Here, דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) is a nominal expression introduced within the narrative. It is not the finite verb דִּבֶּר (dibber). The subsequent verb וַיֹּאמֶר (vayomer, “and he said”) introduces speech, raising questions about how the narrator presents the speaker.

These are different grammatical constructions serving different syntactical functions.

Does the construct relationship alone prove that the Word is a distinct divine person? No. Nor have I established personal distinction merely by identifying the construct state. Personal identity must be determined by examining the complete narrative, the associated verbal predicates, and the relationship between the participants in the discourse.

That is precisely why the grammatical distinction matters.

And what, exactly, has Troy demonstrated to be incorrect about this distinction?

Absolutely nothing.

For those interested in an actual Hebrew grammar rather than Troy’s speculation about my motives, see Gesenius–Kautzsch–Cowley, Gesenius’ Hebrew Grammar, §89, on the construct state, and §52, on the Piel verbal stem.

2. Troy Confuses Grammatical Competence With Interpretive Infallibility

Troy then makes the following extraordinary statement:

“The logical conclusion to this reasoning is that anyone with a thorough knowledge of Hebrew grammar should and would, in fact, come to the same interpretational conclusion that Garza does.”

No, Troy. That is not the logical conclusion. That is the conclusion you have manufactured so that you can spend several paragraphs arguing against something I did not say.

There is an important distinction between understanding what a Hebrew construction grammatically represents and determining what a passage ultimately teaches theologically.

Two scholars may agree completely that דְּבַר־יְהוָה is a construct relationship and still disagree about whether a particular narrative presents the Word as an impersonal divine communication, a literary personification, or a personal manifestation.

Such disagreement is entirely possible. Indeed, such disagreements are commonplace in biblical scholarship.

But here is what Troy seems unwilling to acknowledge: Before someone can responsibly dispute a conclusion based on Hebrew syntax, that individual must first understand the Hebrew syntax being discussed.

Surely this distinction is not too difficult to grasp.

Recognizing the difference between a Hebrew noun and a Hebrew verb does not make someone a Trinitarian. It makes that person competent to recognize a basic grammatical distinction.

Understanding the construct state does not automatically establish the doctrine of the Trinity. It simply prevents someone from misidentifying the grammatical relationship between the words.

And studying Biblical Hebrew does not eliminate interpretive disagreement. It provides the linguistic tools necessary to evaluate competing interpretations.

Troy apparently considers this expectation problematic. I consider it the bare minimum for anyone making confident public claims about the meaning of the Hebrew Scriptures.

3. What About Trinitarian Hebrew Scholars Who Disagree With Me?

Troy next asks what I would say about Trinitarian Hebrew scholars who disagree with my conclusions.

The answer is remarkably simple: I would examine their arguments.

What an astonishing concept!

A scholar’s theological affiliation does not determine whether their exegesis is correct. I do not accept an interpretation merely because its author is Trinitarian, nor do I reject one merely because its author is non-Trinitarian.

The determining issue is the textual evidence.

If a qualified Hebrew scholar disagrees with my interpretation of the Word of YHVH, I expect that scholar to demonstrate why the narrative does not support the personal distinction I have proposed. What about the scholars who do agree? See ISRAEL’S LORD: YHWH AS “TWO POWERS” IN SECOND TEMPLE LITERATURE, pg. 39-41.

Does the passage employ ordinary prophetic communication? Does the relevant verb have an impersonal subject? Is there evidence of personification? Is a third-person reference an instance of divine self-reference rather than a distinction between speakers?

These are legitimate exegetical questions.

What is not legitimate is pretending that disagreement itself somehow constitutes a grammatical refutation.

Furthermore, Troy claims that there are “legion” numbers of orthodox Hebrew scholars who disagree with my interpretation.

Excellent! Then name them. Identify their publications. Cite their grammatical analyses. Explain precisely how their interpretations account for the Hebrew constructions under discussion.

A supposed army of unnamed scholars is not an academic citation, Troy.

Merely claiming that numerous scholars disagree with me proves nothing about whether their interpretations adequately explain the text.

And even if every scholar Troy could assemble agreed against my interpretation, their agreement would not, by itself, settle the grammatical and exegetical questions. Scholarly consensus deserves serious consideration, but it does not eliminate the obligation to examine the arguments supporting it.

4. The Actual Exegetical Question Troy Continues to Avoid

My argument concerning the Word of YHVH is not built upon the childish proposition that every occurrence of the noun דבר (davar) must refer to a distinct divine person.

Rather, I examine passages in which the Word of YHVH appears in narratives involving divine communication, revelation, and potentially distinguishable participants.

Consider 1 Samuel 3:21:

ויסף יהוה להראה בשלה כי נגלה יהוה אל שמואל בשלו בדבר יהוה

“And YHVH continued to appear at Shiloh, for YHVH revealed himself to Samuel at Shiloh by the Word of YHVH.”

Notice the relationship between divine appearance, divine revelation, and the Word of YHVH.

The text employs language of appearance and revelation, concluding with the expression בִּדְבַר יְהוָה (bidvar YHVH), “by the Word of YHVH.”

Now, is this simply a reference to YHVH revealing himself through prophetic communication, or does the larger narrative allow us to understand the Word as a personal means of divine revelation?

That is an exegetical question worth investigating.

The instrumental preposition בְּ (be, “by” or “through”) does not, on its own, establish the Word’s personhood. Nevertheless, the relationship between the Word and divine self-revelation deserves examination within the narrative context.

Similarly, in 1 Kings 19:9–11, the Word of YHVH is introduced in the account of Elijah’s encounter, after which the narrative includes the command to stand before YHVH, who is described as passing by.

The interpreter must investigate the speaker’s identity and determine whether the discourse reflects divine self-reference or a meaningful distinction within the narrative.

These questions cannot be answered merely by announcing that the Word of YHVH must be impersonal because one’s theology requires it.

Nor can they be answered by assuming that a nominal construct automatically establishes a second divine person.

The evidence must be examined, and that is precisely what I am attempting to do.

Troy, however, seems considerably more interested in discussing what he imagines goes on inside my head than what actually appears in the Hebrew text.

5. When Insulting the Audience Becomes Part of the Argument

Finally, Troy concludes this section by accusing me of marginalizing non-Trinitarians in the minds of my “gullible followers.”

That statement is rather revealing.

Apparently, people who watch my videos, examine the Hebrew text, and find my arguments persuasive must be gullible. Evidently, the possibility that intelligent readers might independently evaluate the evidence and reach conclusions different from Troy’s is too difficult for him to entertain.

And yet Troy accuses me of intellectual arrogance.

The irony is difficult to miss.

I have never maintained that every non-Trinitarian lacks Hebrew knowledge. My criticism concerns individuals who make categorical assertions about Hebrew grammar without demonstrating the linguistic competence necessary to sustain those assertions. Broad claims about any theological group should, of course, be supported by specific examples rather than assumed to apply to every member.

But the issue remains straightforward: when someone claims that a Hebrew construction means something, that claim should be evaluated through Hebrew grammar, not protected from scrutiny by accusations of arrogance or theological bias.

If Troy believes I have misrepresented a particular non-Trinitarian interpreter’s grammatical understanding, he is free to document it.

If he believes the construct relationship is analyzed incorrectly, he should demonstrate the error.

If he believes the narrative evidence does not support personal distinction, he should explain why.

These would all be reasonable avenues of criticism.

Calling my audience gullible is not one of them.

Conclusion: Where Is the Grammatical Refutation?

After all of Troy’s complaints about my method, one simple fact remains.

He has not demonstrated that דְּבַר־יְהוָה is anything other than a nominal construct relationship. He has not demonstrated that דִּבֶּר יְהוָה is anything other than a verbal construction. He has not shown that my distinction between these grammatical forms is incorrect.

Instead, he has repeatedly transformed a basic linguistic observation into an imaginary claim of interpretive infallibility.

The distinction between the two Hebrew constructions is a grammatical fact. Whether particular appearances of the Word of YHVH support personal distinction is an exegetical question. Confusing those two issues does not refute either one.

Troy appears convinced that exposing my supposed arrogance will somehow disprove my Hebrew analysis. Unfortunately, grammatical constructions are stubborn things. They do not change their morphological classifications merely because someone dislikes the theological conclusions another interpreter draws from them.

So, Troy, you have now devoted another section to explaining what you believe I must believe, what you suspect I must think about other scholars, and why you consider my audience gullible.

Very impressive.

But perhaps we could finally move beyond the amateur psychology and deal with the Biblical Hebrew.

After all, your article’s title promises a refutation of my interpretation.

At some point, one would expect you to actually provide one.

Garza’s Claim: Troy Finally Discovers the Hebrew Construct State-But Misses the Exegetical Question

After spending considerable time discussing my supposed arrogance, theological presuppositions, and my audience’s intellectual shortcomings, Troy Salinger finally attempts to engage the Hebrew grammar itself.

Progress at last!

Unfortunately, Troy confuses a grammatical distinction with an entire exegetical argument, as though showing that the Hebrew construct state does not independently establish personhood somehow proves that the Word of YHVH cannot be personally distinguished from YHVH in a particular narrative.

Those are two very different propositions.

Troy describes my distinction between דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) and דִּבֶּר יְהוָה (dibber YHVH) and then announces that my position is among the most “inane” and “bizarre” things he has ever heard.

That is quite an emotional reaction to two elementary Hebrew grammatical constructions.

Let us examine the actual evidence rather than Troy’s colorful commentary.

1. The Construct State and the Maqqef: What the Hebrew Grammar Actually Establishes

The expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) consists of a masculine singular noun in the construct state followed by the divine proper name YHVH.

The expression דִּבֶּר יְהוָה (dibber YHVH), however, consists of a Piel perfect verb, third-person masculine singular, followed by its grammatical subject, YHVH.

These constructions are grammatically different.

In the first, דבר (davar) is a noun functioning within a construct relationship. In the second, דִּבֶּר (dibber) is a finite verb describing the action of speaking.

Troy acknowledges this distinction. Nevertheless, he argues that the noun דבר can still refer to a message spoken by YHVH.

On that point, Troy is correct.

Yes, Troy. Correct.

Unlike your characterization of my methodology, I have no difficulty acknowledging a valid grammatical observation, even when it comes from someone who disagrees with my theological conclusions.

The Hebrew noun דָּבָר (davar) certainly can refer to speech, a message, a command, or a divine communication. Standard Hebrew lexicons, including Brown–Driver–Briggs under the entry דָּבָר, document this.

The morphological distinction between a noun and a verb does not mean that the noun cannot refer to the content of something spoken.

But notice what follows.

The fact that דבר can denote a spoken message does not establish that every narrative occurrence of דְּבַר־יְהוָה must refer exclusively to an impersonal message. That would require an additional contextual argument.

This is precisely where lexical meaning and referential identity must be distinguished.

A word’s semantic range identifies what the word can mean. Context determines how that word functions in a particular passage.

Surely Troy understands that distinction, or at least he should before declaring someone else’s interpretation grammatically absurd.

2. What Does the Maqqef Actually Do?

Troy next criticizes my comments concerning the Hebrew maqqef (־), which connects the elements in the expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה.

Here we need to be particularly precise.

According to Gesenius–Kautzsch–Cowley, Gesenius’ Hebrew Grammar, §16a, the maqqef links words into a single accentual unit. The connected words are treated as one unit for purposes of stress and accentuation.

That is an established feature of the Masoretic reading tradition.

But an accentual unit is not necessarily a single lexical word, and phonological unity does not establish personal identity.

When I described devar-YHVH as being pronounced together, I was addressing this accentual relationship. The expression “Word-YHVH” can serve as shorthand for the closely connected Hebrew designation, but it should not be mistaken for a literal grammatical translation that eliminates the construct relationship.

The proper grammatical rendering remains “the Word of YHVH.”

If my spoken wording suggested that the maqqef itself transforms two words into a single divine name, that would be imprecise, and I have no reason to defend that inference.

Furthermore, the written maqqef belongs to the Masoretic accentuation system. It should not be treated as though the original author of Genesis inserted the symbol to establish a theological identity. The Masoretic tradition preserves important reading information, but its accentuation is not independent proof of an original christological intention.

Now, does any of this refute the possibility that the Word of YHVH functions personally within a biblical narrative?

Not remotely.

Troy correctly observes that the construct state expresses a genitive relationship. Gesenius discusses precisely this relationship in §§89 and 128.

But a genitive relationship does not, by itself, determine whether its head noun refers to a person, an object, an abstract quality, or an act of communication.

Consider the expression מַלְאַךְ יְהוָה (malakh YHVH), “the messenger of YHVH.”

This is a construct relationship, yet the referent is a personal messenger.

Now consider יַד־יְהוָה (yad YHVH), “the hand of YHVH,” in Exodus 9:3.

This also employs a construct relationship, but the expression describes divine activity through figurative language rather than identifying a separate person.

The construct relationship is present in both cases. The referents are interpreted differently because the lexical meanings and narrative contexts differ.

Imagine that!

The grammatical construction identifies a relationship between the elements. It does not independently determine the ontological identity of the referent.

Consequently, my argument concerning the Word of YHVH must be evaluated through the passages themselves.

Troy has correctly explained why the maqqef alone cannot prove personhood. He has not shown why the broader narrative cannot support a personal interpretation.

Those are not the same accomplishment.

3. Genesis 15:1: The Passage Troy Needs to Explain

Troy then turns to Genesis 15:1, the first occurrence of the expression devar YHVH in the Hebrew Bible.

The Hebrew reads:

אחר הדברים האלה היה דבר־יהוה אל־אברם במחזה לאמר

“After these things, the Word of YHVH came to Abram in a vision, saying …”

Notice several important features of the passage.

First, the subject of the clause is דבר־יהוה (devar YHVH), not YHVH followed by a finite verb meaning “he spoke.”

Second, the clause employs הָיָה (hayah), a Qal perfect third-person masculine singular form, in the conventional construction describing the coming of the Word.

Third, the revelation occurs בַּמַּחֲזֶה (bammahazeh), “in a vision.”

Fourth, the Word introduces a first-person divine declaration:

אנכי מגן לך

“I am a shield to you.”

These observations do not automatically establish that the Word is a distinct divine person. The construction describing the coming of the Word is also familiar from prophetic reports of divine communication.

However, this narrative involves a vision and a divine speaker. Its meaning cannot be exhausted merely by defining דבר as “message.”

The interpreter must ask how the speaker is presented throughout the entire encounter.

Troy seems content to establish that the noun can refer to communication and then treat the personal interpretation as though it has been linguistically eliminated.

But demonstrating a possible lexical meaning is not the same as demonstrating an exclusive contextual meaning.

This distinction is basic to responsible exegesis.

4. Genesis 15:2: Whom Does Abram Address?

Troy then objects to my observation concerning Abram’s response in verse 2.

The Hebrew reads:

ויאמר אברם אדני יהוה מה תתן־לי

“And Abram said, ‘Adonai YHVH, what will you give me?’”

Let us follow the literary sequence.

In verse 1, the narrator introduces the Word of YHVH coming to Abram in a vision and delivering a first-person divine declaration.

In verse 2, Abram responds by addressing Adonai YHVH directly.

That is what the text says.

Now, does this response by itself prove that the Word is a person distinct from YHVH? No. Abram could be addressing YHVH as the source of the revelation communicated through his Word.

But the narrative does establish that the divine communication is part of an encounter in which Abram addresses YHVH personally.

The relevant question is how the narrator develops the speaker’s identity.

And this is where Troy’s treatment becomes remarkably selective.

5. Genesis 15:4–7: The Narrative Continues

In Genesis 15:4, the narrator again explicitly introduces the Word of YHVH:

והנה דבר־יהוה אליו לאמר

“And behold, the Word of YHVH [came] to him, saying …”

The passage then proceeds to verse 5:

ויוצא אתו החוצה ויאמר

“And he brought him outside and said …”

Notice that the narrator introduces the Word of YHVH in verse 4 and immediately continues in verse 5 with third-person masculine singular verbs describing the action of bringing Abram outside and speaking to him.

The grammatical subject of these verbs is not explicitly repeated in verse 5.

This raises an important question regarding participant continuity: who is the understood subject of these actions?

The immediate discourse has introduced the Word of YHVH, while the larger narrative identifies YHVH as the divine speaker. The interpreter must determine whether the narration simply continues YHVH’s communication or presents the Word as the operative manifestation within the vision.

The verb וַיּוֹצֵא (vayyotse, “and he brought out”) is especially interesting because it describes more than the content of a verbal announcement. It presents an action within the visionary encounter.

Admittedly, the action can be understood as part of the visionary experience without requiring an independently embodied figure. Nevertheless, we must evaluate that possibility from the narrative, not settle it by pointing to the dictionary definition of דבר.

Then comes Genesis 15:7:

ויאמר אליו אני יהוה אשר הוצאתיך מאור כשדים

“And he said to him, ‘I am YHVH, who brought you out of Ur of the Chaldeans.’”

Now we have a clear first-person identification of the speaker as YHVH.

The interpretive question is therefore not merely whether YHVH communicated a message. Everyone agrees that divine communication occurs.

The question is how the Word’s introduction, the sustained dialogue, the visionary setting, the action in verse 5, and the speaker’s self-identification in verse 7 relate to one another.

Does the narrator present the Word as the divine communication itself? As a manifestation of YHVH? Or as a personal figure distinguishable from YHVH while bearing the divine identity?

These possibilities require contextual analysis and comparison with other biblical passages.

What cannot be responsibly done is to declare that the noun דבר necessarily excludes a personal referent simply because it frequently denotes a spoken message.

That would substitute a lexical generalization for an exegetical argument.

6. First Occurrence Does Not Mean Automatic Interpretation

Troy also objects to my emphasis on Genesis 15:1 as the first occurrence of devar YHVH.

He claims that I simply establish my preferred interpretation there and then impose it upon every subsequent passage.

Once again, he confuses literary comparison with grammatical necessity.

The earliest occurrence of an expression is relevant because it provides an initial narrative context in which that expression appears. It may help identify themes and patterns developed in subsequent passages.

However, first occurrence does not create an inflexible grammatical rule governing every later use of the expression.

The same Hebrew expression can function differently in different literary contexts.

For example, the Word of YHVH may be presented as the content of prophetic revelation in one passage, while another passage may use more elaborate language of appearance, action, or personification.

A responsible investigation must examine these occurrences individually and then determine whether a consistent theological pattern emerges.

That is not an attempt to manufacture a doctrine from a single verse. It is an effort to understand the expression within its broader biblical usage.

Troy is perfectly entitled to disagree with my interpretation of Genesis 15.

But he must establish his alternative reading through the text rather than merely announce that my interpretation is impossible.

7. Genesis 24:51 and Exodus 4:30: The Grammatical Contrast Remains

Troy then dismisses my comparison with Genesis 24:51 and Exodus 4:30 as “totally irrelevant.”

Really?

Genesis 24:51 contains:

כאשר דבר יהוה

“As YHVH has spoken.”

Here, דִּבֶּר (dibber) is a Piel perfect verb describing an action performed by YHVH.

Exodus 4:30 reads:

וידבר אהרן את כל־הדברים אשר־דבר יהוה אל־משה

“And Aaron spoke all the words that YHVH had spoken to Moses.”

This verse is particularly instructive because it contains both the noun דְּבָרִים (devarim, “words”) and the verb דִּבֶּר (dibber, “he spoke”).

The noun refers to the words, while the verb describes the action of speaking.

In other words, the biblical text itself demonstrates the grammatical distinction.

It also demonstrates that the noun can designate the content of what was spoken.

There is no contradiction here.

The distinction is relevant to accurate morphological analysis, even though it does not independently determine the personal or impersonal referent of the expression devar YHVH in every passage.

Troy mistakes the limitations of a grammatical observation for the elimination of every broader exegetical argument in which that observation appears.

They do not.

8. Troy’s Appeal to Scholarly Ridicule Is Not an Argument

Troy makes the rather theatrical assertion that no Hebrew scholar would dare agree with my interpretation for fear of being laughed out of academia.

That is quite a claim.

One might reasonably expect a scholarly citation to follow such an absolute declaration.

Instead, we receive an imagined scene in which unnamed Hebrew scholars collectively ridicule an interpretation Troy considers unacceptable.

Unfortunately, hypothetical academic laughter is not a recognized method of Hebrew exegesis.

If Troy wishes to cite Hebrew grammarians demonstrating that the maqqef does not prove personal distinction, I agree. Gesenius already establishes the proper grammatical function of the maqqef.

If he wishes to cite lexicographers demonstrating that דבר frequently denotes divine communication, I agree with that as well. Brown–Driver–Briggs documents this usage precisely.

But neither source proves that every narrative occurrence of the Word of YHVH must be ontologically impersonal.

That conclusion requires a different argument.

Likewise, neither source establishes that Genesis 15 presents the Word as a distinct divine person. That conclusion must be argued from the narrative evidence and, for a specifically Christian identification with Jesus, from the broader canonical context.

The theological thesis must stand or fall upon that evidence.

Conclusion: Troy Has Corrected a Grammatical Overstatement, Not Refuted the Exegetical Thesis

Let us summarize what Troy has actually established.

He is correct that the Hebrew construct state does not inherently identify a distinct person. He is correct that the maqqef does not transform two lexical words into a single divine name. He is also correct that דבר can refer to a message spoken by YHVH.

I have no difficulty acknowledging those grammatical facts.

What Troy has not demonstrated is that Genesis 15 excludes a personal manifestation of the Word, that the narrative’s presentation of the speaker cannot support such an interpretation, or that the larger biblical evidence rules out a personal distinction.

Those are separate propositions, and they require separate arguments.

Correcting an imprecise grammatical explanation does not disprove the theological thesis the explanation was intended to investigate.

Troy appears to believe that because the maqqef does not establish personhood, the entire question of the Word’s personal identity has somehow disappeared.

It has not.

The proper exegetical investigation begins with Hebrew morphology, proceeds through syntax and discourse analysis, and then evaluates the relevant biblical narratives in their literary and theological contexts.

In Genesis 15, that means explaining the Word’s arrival in a vision, Abram’s direct response to YHVH, the renewed introduction of the Word in verse 4, the unnamed subject of the actions in verse 5, and the speaker’s explicit identification as YHVH in verse 7.

An impersonal-message interpretation must account for these details. A personal-manifestation interpretation must do the same.

Neither interpretation becomes correct simply because its advocate declares the alternative ridiculous.

So, Troy, congratulations on explaining that the maqqef does not establish a divine person. On that point, we can agree.

But you have not demonstrated that the Word of YHVH cannot be personally distinguished within the biblical narrative.

You have demonstrated what the grammatical construction does not prove.

Now perhaps you can address what the narrative actually presents.

Because, despite the insults and theatrical declarations of scholarly outrage, that remains the question your article is supposed to answer.

And no amount of sarcasm, mine or yours, can substitute for the Hebrew evidence.

Troy Salinger’s Rebuttal: When English Translations Replace Hebrew Exegesis

Troy Salinger finally arrives at what he considers his devastating rebuttal of my interpretation of the Word of YHVH. After repeatedly accusing me of misunderstanding Biblical Hebrew, he begins his supposed grammatical refutation by presenting a collection of English Bible translations.

Yes, English translations.

Apparently, after emphasizing how allegedly defective my Hebrew analysis is, Troy believes that assembling several English renderings of Genesis 15:1 settles the matter.

One would think that a critique of Hebrew syntax would begin with Hebrew syntax. But perhaps that expectation is unreasonable.

More importantly, Troy’s lengthy response repeatedly confuses three separate questions: what the Hebrew expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) means grammatically, how that expression functions in a particular narrative, and whether the larger biblical evidence permits identifying the Word as a personal manifestation of YHVH.

These questions are related, but they are not identical.

And Troy’s repeated failure to distinguish them is precisely why much of his supposed rebuttal misses the actual exegetical issue.

1. The NET Bible: Since When Does an English Translation Settle Ontology?

Troy begins with the NET Bible, which translates Genesis 15:1 using the expression “the LORD’s message.”

He then lists several additional English versions that employ similar renderings.

Apparently, the fact that these translations understand the Word of YHVH as divine communication is supposed to demonstrate that my interpretation is grammatically impossible.

But that conclusion does not follow.

The Hebrew noun דָּבָר (davar) has a recognized semantic range that includes a word, matter, thing, command, and message. Nobody familiar with Biblical Hebrew should dispute that.

Consequently, translating דְּבַר־יְהוָה as “the message of YHVH” is perfectly legitimate in contexts where the expression denotes divine communication.

But Troy apparently believes that establishing one legitimate semantic meaning automatically eliminates every other possible contextual function.

That is not how lexical semantics works.

Consider a basic distinction: the meaning of a noun does not, by itself, determine the ontological status of its referent.

A translation communicates what the translators understand a passage to mean. It does not necessarily resolve every exegetical or theological question the original text raises.

The NET translators may reasonably conclude that Genesis 15:1 describes a divine message. Their interpretation deserves consideration. But their English rendering does not grammatically demonstrate that the Word cannot be understood personally within a broader theological interpretation. Also, in 1Kings 19 the NET bible identifies “the LORD’s message” as the LORD himself: “The LORD said, ‘Go out and stand on the mountain before the LORD. Look, the LORD is ready to pass by.” (1Kings 19:11). Does the NET Bible identify two LORDs?

Likewise, the NIV’s decision to retain “the word of the LORD” does not prove my interpretation either.

Both are translation choices.

In fact, some of Troy’s examples are explicitly interpretive paraphrases. The NIRV and CEV recast the Hebrew nominal expression into ordinary English verbal descriptions of YHVH speaking.

That may accurately communicate the translators’ understanding of the event, but it does not reproduce the precise Hebrew grammatical construction.

The Hebrew remains:

היה דבר־יהוה אל־אברם במחזה

The subject is דְּבַר־יְהוָה, the Word of YHVH.

It is not the finite verbal construction דִּבֶּר יְהוָה, “YHVH spoke.”

The two constructions can describe related realities without becoming grammatically identical.

Translation equivalence does not eliminate morphological distinction.

Troy appears to think that because the two constructions can communicate a similar idea in English, their Hebrew differences are therefore irrelevant.

That conclusion is linguistically careless.

Furthermore, Troy emphasizes that the NET translators are Trinitarians, apparently believing that their theological affiliation makes their translation an especially powerful objection to my position.

What happened to Troy’s earlier complaint that I supposedly appeal to Trinitarian agreement?

Does a translator’s theological affiliation suddenly become decisive when Troy finds the translation convenient?

The NET deserves evaluation because of its scholarship, not because its translators affirm or deny a particular theological doctrine.

And if an English rendering is all that is required to determine an Old Testament figure’s personal identity, we might as well abandon the discussion of Hebrew grammar entirely.

Unfortunately for Troy, Hebrew exegesis requires considerably more than collecting translations that support one’s preferred reading.

2. Genesis 15:1 and Troy’s Telegraph Illustration

Troy next attempts to demonstrate that the Word of YHVH coming to Abram does not imply a personal being.

His illustration involves a message arriving by telegraph.

A telegraph.

We are examining an ancient Hebrew narrative involving divine revelation, and Troy’s analogy is a nineteenth-century communication technology.

Of course, a message can be said to come to someone. That is not disputed.

Indeed, Genesis 15:1 uses the verb הָיָה (hayah, “was” or “came to be”) in a construction conventionally translated as the Word coming to Abram.

The verse does not employ the ordinary motion verb בּוֹא (bo, “to come”) to describe a physical arrival.

This is precisely why my interpretation must be argued from the larger narrative, not simply from the English word “came.”

But Troy’s illustration proves considerably less than he imagines.

Showing that a message can arrive does not establish that the Word of YHVH is necessarily impersonal in every passage.

It merely establishes that an impersonal reading is possible.

And possibility is not exclusivity.

The fundamental question remains whether the biblical narrative develops the Word as divine communication alone or also permits the language of personal manifestation.

Troy has not resolved that question by invoking Western Union.

3. Genesis 15:1–7: Troy Supplies Details the Text Never Mentions

Troy then confidently reconstructs the encounter between Abram and YHVH.

According to Troy, Abram was inside his tent, where YHVH appeared in the representative image of a man. Everything occurred mentally, and YHVH subsequently took Abram outside the tent within the vision.

Interesting.

There is just one problem.

Genesis 15 never tells us that YHVH appeared inside Abram’s tent in the form of a man.

Those details are Troy’s reconstruction, not statements made by the narrator. That is called eisegesis.

Let us examine the actual Hebrew.

Genesis 15:1 states:

היה דבר־יהוה אל־אברם במחזה לאמר

“The Word of YHVH came to Abram in a vision, saying …”

The noun מַחֲזֶה (machazeh) denotes a vision.

I agree that the encounter is presented as visionary revelation.

But Troy makes an unjustified leap when he argues that because something occurs in a vision, it can only be a mental event involving representative images rather than an encounter with an actual personal being.

That is a false dichotomy.

The medium through which someone perceives a revelation does not independently determine the ontological status of the one revealed.

A visionary encounter can communicate real information about an actual person without requiring that person to be physically present in an ordinary material form.

Consider the visions of Daniel 7.

Daniel sees the Ancient of Days and one like a son of man.

Does the visionary nature of the account mean that the Ancient of Days is merely an imaginary character produced within Daniel’s mind?

Obviously not.

The figures are presented within a symbolic visionary setting, but the question of their referents is not settled by the fact that Daniel experiences a vision.

Similarly, Revelation 4–5 presents heavenly figures within John’s vision. Their visionary presentation does not automatically make them ontologically unreal.

A vision describes a mode of revelation, not necessarily the nonexistence or impersonality of the one revealed.

Troy therefore cannot simply announce that Genesis 15 takes place in Abram’s mind and conclude that no personal manifestation is possible.

Even if the entire encounter occurred within a visionary experience, that would not determine whether the Word is personal or impersonal.

Furthermore, Genesis 15:4 again introduces the Word of YHVH:

והנה דבר־יהוה אליו לאמר

“And behold, the Word of YHVH [came] to him, saying …”

Then verse 5 continues:

ויוצא אתו החוצה ויאמר

“And he brought him outside and said …”

The verb וַיּוֹצֵא (vayyotse) is Hiphil wayyiqtol, third-person masculine singular, from the root יצא, meaning that the subject caused Abram to go out or brought him outside.

The following וַיֹּאמֶר (vayyomer) is another third-person masculine singular verbal form.

The subject is not explicitly named again in verse 5.

The immediate discourse has introduced the Word of YHVH in verse 4, while the broader encounter identifies YHVH as the divine speaker.

Determining the referent of the third-person verbs is therefore a question of discourse analysis and narrative continuity.

Troy’s interpretation understands YHVH as acting within a vision. That is a possible reading.

My argument asks whether the Word’s introduction and the continued actions of the divine speaker support a personal manifestation.

That interpretation requires argument as well.

But neither possibility can be eliminated merely by identifying the revelation as a vision.

Then, in Genesis 15:7, the speaker declares:

אני יהוה אשר הוצאתיך מאור כשדים

“I am YHVH, who brought you out of Ur of the Chaldeans.”

The narrator has presented the Word of YHVH, sustained divine speech, action within the encounter, and the speaker’s identification as YHVH.

Those details are relevant to understanding the narrative.

Troy responds by inventing a representative man standing inside Abram’s tent.

Apparently, reconstructing an unmentioned figure is acceptable when Troy does it, but considering a personal manifestation within the narrative is unacceptable when I do it.

Quite the interpretive standard.

4. Troy’s Claim That Scholarship Would Reject This Interpretation

Perhaps the most revealing feature of Troy’s response is his repeated insistence that no academically credible scholar would entertain my interpretation.

Really?

Let us examine that claim against actual published biblical commentary.

The Pulpit Commentary, discussing Genesis 15:1, explicitly considers whether the Word of YHVH serves as a personal designation of the preincarnate Logos.

Significantly, the commentator does not claim that this conclusion is grammatically certain. Instead, the discussion acknowledges that the interpretation cannot be conclusively demonstrated while arguing that the surrounding narrative provides support for it.

That is precisely the kind of distinction Troy repeatedly refuses to make.

It is possible to consider a personal identification without claiming that Hebrew morphology alone proves it.

Adam Clarke, in his commentary on Genesis 15:1, also records an interpretation among earlier learned commentators connecting the Hebrew Word of YHVH with the Logos of John 1:1. Clarke additionally discusses the Aramaic Memra traditions in connection with that proposal.

These historical discussions do not establish that the personal-Word interpretation is correct, and they certainly do not demonstrate a scholarly consensus in its favor.

They do, however, establish that the interpretation was not invented by me and has appeared within published biblical exposition.

Troy’s categorical claim that no scholar would entertain such an interpretation is therefore historically indefensible.

One wonders whether Troy actually investigated the history of interpretation before announcing what scholarship supposedly permits.

Apparently, consulting the commentaries would have interrupted the rhetorical performance.

5. The Maqqef: Correct Grammar, Incorrect Conclusion

Troy devotes considerable attention to the maqqef and quotes William Henry Green’s A Grammar of the Hebrew Language, §43.

Green is correct about the grammatical function of the maqqef.

The maqqef joins words into an accentual unit. It does not erase the distinction between the individual lexical words, nor does it automatically transform a construct relationship into a compound divine name.

Gesenius–Kautzsch–Cowley, §16a, explains the same basic principle.

The construct expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה means “the Word of YHVH,” and the presence of the maqqef does not independently prove that the Word is YHVH.

That point deserves to be stated clearly.

Nevertheless, Troy commits another error when he acts as though demonstrating the limitations of the maqqef disproves every contextual argument for a personal Word.

It does not.

The examples he supplies, YHVH’s mountain, house, feast, servant, and priest, merely demonstrate that different nouns have different referents while occurring in construct relationships.

Exactly.

That is the point.

The Hebrew expression מַלְאַךְ יְהוָה (malakh YHVH), “the messenger of YHVH,” can refer to a personal messenger.

The expression בֵּית יְהוָה (beit YHVH), “the house of YHVH,” refers to a building or sacred dwelling place.

The grammatical relationship itself does not determine personhood.

Context does the necessary interpretive work.

When the messenger of YHVH appears in Exodus 3:2, followed by YHVH and Elohim speaking from the burning bush in verses 4–6, the theological questions arise from the identity and actions of the figure in the narrative.

They do not arise merely from the presence of a maqqef.

Interestingly, Troy even makes a mistake in his own list of Masoretic examples.

He claims that all five examples contain a construct chain joined by a maqqef. Yet in the Westminster Leningrad text of 1 Samuel 14:3, the relevant words appear as:

כֹּהֵן׀ יְהוָה

Notice the vertical paseq (׀) after כֹּהֵן (kohen, “priest”).

That is not a maqqef.

This does not invalidate Troy’s broader point about construct relationships, but it is a rather unfortunate oversight in an argument devoted to correcting someone else’s understanding of Hebrew notation.

Perhaps checking the Masoretic text before lecturing readers about its symbols would be advisable.

6. First Samuel 3:1–21: The Verses Troy Should Have Examined

Troy next accuses me of deliberately avoiding 1 Samuel 3:1 because it supposedly disproves my interpretation.

He quotes the verse describing the Word of YHVH as rare during Samuel’s early life.

Let us examine it.

ודבר־יהוה היה יקר בימים ההם אין חזון נפרץ

“The Word of YHVH was rare in those days; vision was not widespread.”

Troy asks how the Word could be rare if the Word were personal.

The answer is straightforward.

The adjective יָקָר (yaqar) describes the rarity of divine revelation within the historical setting. A personal agent, if such an agent were involved in revelation, could manifest or communicate infrequently.

The rarity of an appearance or activity does not determine whether the one appearing or acting is personal.

Nevertheless, the natural reading of verse 1 concerns the scarcity of prophetic revelation. I have no difficulty acknowledging that.

The question is what happens when the narrator moves from that introductory statement into Samuel’s actual encounter.

Troy concentrates on verses 1 and 7.

Curiously, he does not adequately engage verses 10 and 21.

And these are particularly important.

First Samuel 3:10: YHVH Came and Stood

The Hebrew states:

ויבא יהוה ויתיצב ויקרא כפעם־בפעם שמואל שמואל

“And YHVH came and stood and called as at the other times, ‘Samuel, Samuel.’”

Let us examine the verbal forms.

וַיָּבֹא (vayyavo) is a Qal wayyiqtol, third-person masculine singular, from בוא, “to come.”

וַיִּתְיַצַּב (vayyityatstsav) is a Hitpael wayyiqtol, third-person masculine singular, from יצב, “to station oneself” or “to stand.”

וַיִּקְרָא (vayyiqra) is a Qal wayyiqtol, third-person masculine singular, from קרא, “to call.”

And who is the explicitly named subject?

YHVH.

The narrator states that YHVH came, stood, and called Samuel.

This is considerably more substantial than simply declaring that a message was received.

Now, do these verbs independently establish that the Word is a second divine person? No.

But they certainly establish that the narrative describes YHVH’s personal initiative in a revelatory encounter.

Notice also that the passage does not simply state that Samuel received information. It describes an encounter in which YHVH comes, stands, and calls.

The description is sufficiently striking that Keil and Delitzsch, commenting on 1 Samuel 3:10, interpret it as an objectively real revelation rather than merely a dream of Samuel.

Again, this does not prove a distinct divine person. But it does demonstrate why reducing the entire narrative to a generic message is exegetically inadequate.

First Samuel 3:21: The Verse Troy Leaves Out

Now consider the chapter’s conclusion:

ויסף יהוה להראה בשלה כי נגלה יהוה אל־שמואל בשלו בדבר יהוה

“And YHVH continued to appear at Shiloh, for YHVH revealed himself to Samuel at Shiloh by the Word of YHVH.”

Notice the repeated language.

The verb לְהֵרָאֹה (lehera’oh) is a Niphal infinitive expressing appearance.

The verb נִגְלָה (niglah) is a Niphal perfect, third-person masculine singular, meaning “was revealed” or “revealed himself.”

And the verse explicitly associates YHVH’s self-revelation with:

בִּדְבַר יְהוָה (bidvar YHVH)

“By the Word of YHVH.”

The preposition בְּ can mark means or instrumentality. The verse therefore presents the Word as the means through which YHVH revealed himself.

Does that necessarily identify the Word as an independently personal mediator? No. The phrase can be interpreted in terms of prophetic communication.

But the narrative’s combination of divine appearance, divine self-revelation, and the Word of YHVH deserves examination.

The chapter begins by describing the rarity of revelation.

It then narrates YHVH coming, standing, and calling Samuel.

Finally, it concludes by describing YHVH’s continued appearances and revelation through the Word of YHVH.

That is the complete narrative progression, not merely the isolated statements Troy selects.

And if Troy wishes to accuse me of deliberately concealing inconvenient verses, perhaps he should first explain why his own discussion of 1 Samuel 3 gives so little attention to the chapter’s most explicit descriptions of divine appearance.

I would rather examine the verses than speculate about his motives.

He should extend the same courtesy.

7. First Samuel 4:1: Troy’s Imaginary “WordSamuel”

Troy considers 1 Samuel 4:1 especially devastating because it refers to the word of Samuel coming to Israel.

He sarcastically asks whether I would then have to believe in another personal being called the Word of Samuel.

No, Troy.

And the reason is rather elementary.

Identical grammatical constructions do not necessarily have identical referents.

In 1 Samuel 4:1, the immediate context concerns Samuel’s established prophetic ministry and his communication to Israel.

There is no narrative identifying a second personal figure associated with Samuel, no comparable divine manifestation, and no accompanying identification of the speaker with a divine name.

The expression naturally refers to Samuel’s prophetic word.

By contrast, passages concerning the Word of YHVH must be examined within their respective narratives of divine revelation.

Does 1 Samuel 4:1 establish that the noun דבר can denote a message?

Absolutely.

Does it establish that the expression devar YHVH can never participate in a narrative suggesting personal manifestation?

Not at all.

Troy’s argument incorrectly moves from a shared grammatical form to an assumed identity of semantic function in every context.

That is an unwarranted generalization.

One might as well argue that because the messenger of an ordinary king is a human representative, every biblical appearance of the messenger of YHVH must function identically in all narrative and theological respects.

The lexical and grammatical relationships may be similar. The contextual presentation of the referents must still be examined.

This is not special pleading.

It is contextual interpretation.

8. First Kings 19:9–13: Troy’s Explanation Creates More Questions Than It Answers

We now arrive at one of the most important passages in the discussion.

First Kings 19:9 states:

והנה אליו דבר־יהוה ויאמר לו מה־לך פה אליהו

“And behold, the Word of YHVH [was] to him, and he said to him, ‘What are you doing here, Elijah?’”

The noun דְּבַר־יְהוָה appears as the introduced source or content of the revelation, followed by the third-person masculine singular verbal form וַיֹּאמֶר (vayyomer).

Troy correctly observes that because דבר is grammatically masculine, the following verb does not independently establish personhood.

Agreed.

Biblical Hebrew grammatical gender is not equivalent to biological sex or ontological personhood.

But that observation does not settle the identity of the speaker.

Troy then provides several possible explanations, including the claim that the speaker may simply be an audible voice from YHVH.

That interpretation is possible, yet it requires eisegesis. Nothing in the context suggests Troy’s interpretation except for Troy.

The question, however, concerns the ensuing discourse.

Verse 11 states:

ויאמר צא ועמדת בהר לפני יהוה

“And he said, ‘Go out and stand on the mountain before YHVH.’”

The text then announces:

והנה יהוה עבר

“And behold, YHVH was passing by.”

Notice the relationship between the speech and the announced appearance of YHVH.

The speaker directs Elijah to stand before YHVH, and the narrative announces YHVH’s passing.

This is precisely why the passage deserves careful analysis.

Does the speaker refer to himself in the third person, or does the narrative present a distinction between the speaker and the one whose appearance is announced?

That question cannot be answered merely by asserting that the grammatical subject could be impersonal.

Troy appeals to illeism, the practice of referring to oneself in the third person.

I agree that Biblical Hebrew contains instances of divine self-reference in the third person.

For example, Exodus 34:6 presents YHVH proclaiming his own divine name. Self-reference involving the divine name is therefore a genuine interpretive possibility.

But establishing that illeism exists does not demonstrate that it must be the explanation in 1 Kings 19:11. Again, another eisegesis moment.

A grammatical possibility is not the same thing as a demonstrated contextual interpretation.

To establish illeism here, Troy must explain why the speaker is most naturally identified with the YHVH whose passing is being announced, rather than merely pointing out that such self-reference can occur elsewhere.

Equally, the personal-distinction interpretation must show that the narrative actually presents distinguishable speakers, rather than assuming that every third-person reference indicates another divine person.

That is the exegetical issue.

Troy also suggests that an unidentified messenger may be speaking to Elijah.

An unidentified messenger?

Where does the narrator introduce this messenger?

Where is the messenger identified?

Troy supplies no explicit textual identification because the passage provides none. Another eisegesis for Troy.

Apparently, an unseen messenger can be introduced into the narrative as a legitimate possibility, while an interpretation involving the Word explicitly introduced in verse 9 must be rejected as theological imagination.

The irony is rather obvious.

There is also verse 15, which explicitly states:

ויאמר יהוה אליו

“And YHVH said to him.”

This verse identifies YHVH as the speaker in the continuing encounter.

Any interpretation of the passage, including mine, must account for that explicit identification.

The personal-distinction proposal must explain how the Word’s narrative role relates to YHVH’s direct speech. The illeism proposal must explain the third-person references within the preceding encounter.

The proper scholarly response is to examine the complete discourse, not declare one interpretation impossible because another can be imagined.

9. Troy’s Hypothetical Dream: When Speculation Becomes Exegesis

Troy then offers what may be the most extraordinary suggestion in his entire article.

He proposes that Elijah may have fallen asleep in the cave and dreamed the whole encounter.

Why?

Because Elijah had traveled for forty days and nights, and the wind, earthquake, and fire supposedly seem more appropriate to a dream than to an actual event.

Seriously?

The narrative says Elijah lodged in a cave. It does not say that the encounter occurred while he was sleeping.

The account contains no explicit dream formula.

No narrator announces that Elijah dreamed.

No subsequent passage states that he awoke from the encounter.

Troy’s proposed dream is therefore speculative.

Interestingly, he acknowledges that it is speculative, yet proceeds to treat it as another preferable explanation.

His appeal to Numbers 12:6–7 does not resolve the problem.

That passage establishes that YHVH communicates with prophets through visions and dreams. It does not establish that every prophetic encounter must occur through one of those means when the narrative does not specify otherwise.

Moreover, Numbers 12:6–8 itself distinguishes different modes of divine communication, particularly in its discussion of Moses.

The text provides no universal rule requiring the interpreter to presume sleep whenever divine communication occurs.

Troy’s explanation therefore moves from a general biblical observation about prophetic revelation to a highly specific historical reconstruction that the narrative never supplies.

And his additional argument concerning the wind, earthquake, and fire is hardly persuasive.

Since when does the dramatic nature of a theophanic account prove that it must have been a dream?

Is the reader supposed to believe that because the events are extraordinary, they must be imaginary?

The entire Hebrew Bible contains extraordinary accounts of divine manifestations.

One cannot simply reclassify them as dreams because their descriptions appear too dramatic for one’s preferred reading.

Even if the event were visionary, it would still not settle whether the communicating figure was personal.

Once again, Troy confuses the mode of an encounter with the identity of the one encountered.

And after inventing a possible dream, an unidentified messenger, and a detailed reconstruction of how the scene may have unfolded, he continues accusing me of importing assumptions into the text.

That is certainly an interesting application of methodological consistency.

10. Is Contextual Differentiation Really Special Pleading?

Troy finally objects to my distinction between occurrences in which devar YHVH plainly denotes divine communication and passages in which the Word appears within more elaborate revelatory narratives.

He calls this special pleading.

But contextual differentiation is not special pleading.

Special pleading occurs when someone introduces an unjustified exception to protect a favored conclusion.

Recognizing that a noun may possess different semantic functions in different contexts is ordinary linguistic analysis.

For instance, דבר can denote a spoken message, an event, a matter, or a thing depending upon the literary and grammatical context.

Those different uses do not require abandoning its lexical identity.

Similarly, the expression “Word of YHVH” may refer to the content of revelation in one passage, while another passage raises additional questions about divine agency or manifestation.

However, one important qualification must be made.

The formula “the Word of YHVH came to” does not, by itself, identify a personal being.

Troy’s examples from Jeremiah demonstrate that this formula frequently introduces prophetic messages.

That is legitimate evidence.

Consequently, a personal interpretation cannot be defended by establishing an automatic rule that every occurrence of this introductory formula identifies a divine person.

Instead, the question must be whether the particular narrative supplies additional indicators warranting that interpretation.

Such indicators might include the presentation of the speaker, explicit descriptions of appearance or action, participant continuity, and relationships between the figures identified in the discourse.

Genesis 15, 1 Samuel 3, and 1 Kings 19 should therefore be examined individually before drawing a cumulative theological conclusion.

Troy’s examples establish that the impersonal-message reading is common and frequently appropriate.

They do not establish that the personal interpretation is impossible in every passage.

Likewise, the fact that some historical Christian commentators have proposed a personal-Word interpretation does not establish that the interpretation must be correct.

The evidence must carry the argument.

That is the difference between responsible exegesis and simply assigning every occurrence of a phrase the meaning preferred by one’s theological system.

Conclusion: Troy Has Demonstrated Possibility, Not Exclusion

After all the English translations, grammatical observations, telegraph illustrations, hypothetical messengers, and imagined dreams, what has Troy actually demonstrated?

He has shown that דְּבַר־יְהוָה frequently refers to divine communication.

Correct.

He has shown that the maqqef does not independently establish personal identity.

Correct.

He has shown that the Hebrew construct state does not automatically identify the Word as a divine person.

Again, correct.

But none of these observations establishes that a personal understanding of the Word of YHVH is excluded by the narratives under investigation.

And Troy’s repeated declarations that my interpretation is impossible are considerably stronger than the evidence he has presented.

Particularly revealing is his treatment of 1 Samuel 3.

He criticizes my supposed omission of verse 1 while failing to deal adequately with verse 10, where YHVH comes and stands, or verse 21, where YHVH’s continued appearance is explicitly associated with the Word of YHVH.

Likewise, his discussion of Genesis 15 introduces a male figure inside Abram’s tent without textual identification, while his explanation of 1 Kings 19 invokes an unidentified messenger or an entirely speculative dream.

Apparently, interpretive reconstruction is objectionable only when it supports a Trinitarian conclusion.

The larger theological question remains whether biblical narratives describing the Word, the Messenger of YHVH, and divine self-manifestation provide evidence of personal distinction within the identity of YHVH, and whether the New Testament’s presentation of Jesus as the Word illuminates those earlier texts.

That question is not settled by a Hebrew hyphen, an English translation, or a single lexical definition.

It requires sustained examination of the biblical evidence.

Troy has established that my interpretation is not grammatically compulsory. He has not established that it is grammatically impossible or contextually indefensible.

Those are very different conclusions.

And this distinction matters because refuting an argument that claims necessity is not the same as refuting an argument that proposes a plausible interpretation supported by cumulative evidence.

So, Troy, I appreciate the discussion of the maqqef. I appreciate the examples demonstrating that דבר can denote a message. I even appreciate the appeal to established Hebrew grammar.

But I would appreciate it considerably more if you stopped presenting legitimate grammatical limitations as though they were comprehensive theological refutations.

The Biblical Hebrew deserves better than that.

And so do your readers.

You have demonstrated that the Word of YHVH can mean a message from YHVH. What you have not demonstrated is that the biblical narratives cannot present the Word as a personal manifestation of YHVH.

Until you establish that exclusion from the text itself, your rebuttal remains incomplete.

And no, Troy, imagining Elijah asleep in a cave does not make up the difference.


Scholarly works referenced: Wilhelm Gesenius, Hebrew Grammar, edited by E. Kautzsch and translated by A. E. Cowley, §16a; William Henry Green, A Grammar of the Hebrew Language, §43; The Pulpit Commentary, Genesis 15:1 and 1 Samuel 3:21; Adam Clarke, Commentary on the Bible, Genesis 15:1; C. F. Keil and F. Delitzsch, Biblical Commentary on the Old Testament, Genesis 15 and 1 Samuel 3.

Final Response to Troy Salinger: Declaring Victory Is Not the Same as Demonstrating It

Troy Salinger concludes his article with the triumphant announcement that my interpretation of the Word of YHVH has been exposed as grammatically incorrect, academically unsupported, and contrary to sound reasoning and common sense.

Quite the victory speech!

Unfortunately, there is one rather significant problem: Troy has not demonstrated what his conclusion claims he has demonstrated.

What he has actually established is that the Hebrew noun דָּבָר (davar) can refer to a spoken message, that the construct relationship דְּבַר־יְהוָה (devar YHVH) does not automatically establish personhood, and that the maqqef affects accentuation rather than transforming two lexical words into a single divine name.

All three observations are grammatically correct.

And none of them resolves the central question of whether certain biblical narratives present the Word of YHVH as personally distinguishable from YHVH.

Troy apparently believes that explaining what a Hebrew grammatical construction does not establish is equivalent to disproving every possible interpretation of the narrative in which that construction occurs.

That is not a refutation. That is a rather elementary confusion between morphology, semantics, syntax, and contextual exegesis.

1. Let Us Settle the Hebrew Grammar Once and for All

The Hebrew expression דְּבַר־יְהוָה consists of a noun in the construct state followed by the divine proper name YHVH.

Its grammatical translation is “the Word of YHVH.”

The maqqef joins the two elements into an accentual unit without abolishing their distinct lexical identities or their construct relationship.

Gesenius–Kautzsch–Cowley, Hebrew Grammar, §16a, explains the function of the maqqef precisely in terms of tone and pointing.

This is not controversial.

When I emphasize the expression as “Word-YHVH,” I am drawing attention to the closely connected Hebrew designation, not claiming that the grammatical genitive relationship has disappeared. If my spoken presentation suggested that the maqqef alone establishes a distinct divine person, that would be an overstatement. The argument for personal distinction must come from the narrative evidence.

But this clarification does not establish Troy’s theological conclusion either.

The expression may refer to divine communication, and in many passages that is plainly its function. The question is whether particular narratives employ the expression in a manner that supports something more.

The fact that a word commonly refers to an impersonal message does not establish that it can never function in connection with a personal manifestation.

That question must be decided exegetically.

Troy has repeatedly treated the conventional meaning of the expression as though it constitutes an absolute prohibition against any other contextual understanding.

Yet no Hebrew grammar he has cited establishes such a prohibition.

2. Troy’s Absolute Claim About Scholarship Is Historically False

Troy’s conclusion contains the remarkable assertion that I have neither Hebrew grammar nor scholarship supporting my interpretation.

Let us address the scholarly claim directly.

The Pulpit Commentary, in its discussion of Genesis 15:1, explicitly considers whether the Word of YHVH functions as a personal designation of the preincarnate Logos.

The commentator acknowledges that the identification is not susceptible to complete demonstration but argues that the language throughout the narrative lends support to it.

In other words, a published biblical commentator has considered precisely the type of interpretation Troy claims no competent scholar would entertain.

Adam Clarke, commenting on Genesis 15:1, similarly records the position of earlier learned interpreters who associated the Hebrew Word of YHVH with the Logos of John 1:1. Clarke also discusses the Aramaic Memra tradition in this connection.

Now, do these commentators establish my interpretation beyond dispute?

Of course not.

Nor am I claiming that they represent the consensus of contemporary Hebrew scholarship, including the book by two scholars, ISRAEL’S LORD: YHWH AS “TWO POWERS IN SECOND TEMPLE LITERATURE.

But they establish something Troy’s argument emphatically denies: the personal interpretation of the Word of YHVH has a documented history within biblical commentary.

Troy may disagree with those interpreters. He may reject their theological conclusions. He may even consider their arguments unpersuasive.

But he can no longer responsibly maintain that the interpretation is entirely absent from scholarship.

Perhaps consulting the history of biblical interpretation before declaring an interpretation academically unthinkable would have been worthwhile.

3. The Biblical Narratives Still Require Explanation

Throughout his article, Troy repeatedly appeals to passages in which the Word of YHVH clearly denotes divine communication.

I agree that such passages exist.

But the passages I have emphasized raise additional questions.

In Genesis 15:1, the Word of YHVH comes to Abram in a vision. The narrative continues with divine speech, Abram’s response to Adonai YHVH, the action of bringing Abram outside in verse 5, and the speaker’s declaration in verse 7:

אני יהוה

“I am YHVH.”

Those details do not automatically prove the existence of two divine persons. They do, however, require attention to the identity and continuity of the speaker within the visionary encounter.

In 1 Samuel 3:10, the narrator explicitly states:

ויבא יהוה ויתיצב

“And YHVH came and stood.”

The chapter then concludes in 1 Samuel 3:21 by stating that YHVH continued to appear to Samuel and revealed himself בִּדְבַר יְהוָה (bidvar YHVH), “by the Word of YHVH.”

Here the narrative joins the language of divine appearance and self-revelation to the Word of YHVH.

A strictly communicative interpretation is possible, but merely translating the noun דבר as “message” does not eliminate the need to explain the narrative’s language of appearance.

Likewise, in 1 Kings 19:9–11, the Word of YHVH is introduced, the speaker commands Elijah to stand before YHVH, and the narrative then announces that YHVH is passing by.

Does the speaker refer to himself in the third person, or does the discourse present distinguishable participants?

That remains an exegetical question.

I recognize that divine illeism is a genuine feature of biblical discourse. But one must establish its function in the particular passage rather than assume that its existence elsewhere automatically explains the present narrative.

The possibility of an alternative interpretation does not, by itself, demonstrate that the personal-distinction interpretation is grammatically impossible.

And this is precisely where Troy has failed to establish the comprehensive refutation he claims.

4. Troy’s Four Footnotes Do Not Rescue His Argument

Troy ends his article with four footnotes, apparently intended to reinforce the scholarly foundation of his conclusions.

Let us briefly examine them.

His first footnote correctly explains the maqqef as an accentual connector. Fine. That point is established Hebrew grammar, but it does not determine the personal or impersonal identity of the Word in a particular narrative.

His second footnote directs readers to another article he wrote about visions and dreams.

How reassuring.

Troy supports his interpretation of biblical visions by citing his own interpretation of biblical visions.

There is nothing inherently wrong with referencing one’s previous work. However, citing oneself does not supply independent confirmation of the premises under dispute.

More importantly, Troy continues to confuse the mode of revelation with the identity of the one revealed.

Even if a vision involves images perceived within the visionary’s consciousness, that does not establish that the divine being represented is merely an impersonal construct.

Daniel’s vision of the Ancient of Days in Daniel 7 provides an obvious example. The visionary mode of presentation does not eliminate the personal identity of the figure presented within the vision.

Troy’s third footnote explains grammatical gender in Biblical Hebrew and appeals to Balaam’s donkey in Numbers 22:28.

This is particularly interesting.

Troy argues that an English translation may use “it” for a grammatically feminine Hebrew noun because the referent is not a human person.

That observation concerning English pronoun selection is fair enough.

But grammatical gender and ontological identity are separate questions.

The donkey in Numbers 22:28 is an animate individual that actually speaks within the narrative. Some English translations call the donkey “she,” while others use “it.” Neither pronoun determines whether the donkey is a real participant in the narrated event.

An English pronoun does not establish the ontology of the Hebrew referent.

Likewise, rendering וַיֹּאמֶר (vayyomer) as “he said” or “it said” does not independently settle whether the Word of YHVH is personal in 1 Kings 19. Hebrew grammatical gender does not, by itself, answer that question.

Apparently, the donkey illustration demonstrates less than Troy imagines.

Finally, his fourth footnote appeals to illeism, the practice of referring to oneself in the third person.

Again, this is a legitimate linguistic phenomenon.

But identifying a rhetorical possibility is not the same as establishing that it is occurring in a particular passage.

If Troy believes YHVH is referring to himself in the third person in 1 Kings 19:11, he must defend that interpretation through the discourse and literary context.

Simply defining illeism does not establish its application.

Four footnotes, several valid grammatical observations, and still no demonstration that the Word of YHVH cannot function personally within the narratives under discussion.

5. The Real Issue Is Personal Distinction, Not Whether God Communicates Messages

Let me clarify something that Troy’s article repeatedly overlooks.

My argument is not that YHVH never communicates verbal messages.

Nor is my argument that every occurrence of דְּבַר־יְהוָה identifies a distinct divine person.

Nor does Biblical Hebrew require the reader to accept the doctrine of the Trinity merely because a noun appears in a construct relationship.

Those are not adequate formulations of the argument I am defending.

The broader question is whether the Hebrew Scriptures contain narratives in which the Word of YHVH functions in a manner that supports personal distinction within the divine identity.

This requires examining grammatical constructions, verbal predicates, narrative participants, divine appearances, and the relationship between the speaker and YHVH.

For Christian theology, the additional question concerns whether the New Testament’s identification of Jesus as the Word provides a legitimate canonical framework for understanding those earlier passages.

That conclusion must be argued, not assumed.

But Troy has not disproved it merely by establishing that דבר frequently refers to verbal communication.

In fact, his repeated insistence that there can be no personal understanding of the Word risks committing the very methodological error he accuses me of making: allowing a preferred theological conclusion to determine what interpretive possibilities are permitted before all the relevant evidence has been examined.

6. Troy’s Final Problem: His Conclusion Exceeds His Evidence

Throughout his article, Troy repeatedly characterizes my conclusions as bizarre, eccentric, grammatically unsupported, and contrary to common sense.

Yet his own explanations include a representative man appearing inside Abram’s tent, an unidentified messenger potentially speaking to Elijah, and the suggestion that the entire encounter in 1 Kings 19 may have been a dream.

The first reconstruction contains details not explicitly supplied by Genesis 15. The proposed unidentified messenger is not introduced by the narrator of 1 Kings 19. And the dream hypothesis lacks an explicit textual indication that Elijah was dreaming during the encounter.

These are interpretive proposals, not established facts.

I do not object to considering interpretive possibilities. Biblical exegesis regularly involves weighing competing explanations.

What I object to is the inconsistency of condemning my interpretation as speculative while presenting his own speculative reconstructions as obviously superior.

Troy’s theological assumptions deserve precisely the same scrutiny that he demands of mine.

And there is a further issue.

My thesis requires positive textual evidence. I have an obligation to demonstrate why a personal-distinction interpretation adequately accounts for the narratives rather than merely insisting that it remains possible.

I accept that responsibility.

But Troy has assumed an equally demanding responsibility by declaring that the interpretation has no grammatical, contextual, scholarly, or rational support whatsoever.

His evidence does not justify such an absolute conclusion.

He has challenged one possible grammatical overstatement concerning the maqqef. He has demonstrated the ordinary communicative function of דבר. He has offered alternative readings of several passages.

What he has not done is demonstrate that those alternatives are the only exegetically defensible readings or that the historical personal-Word interpretation is inherently impossible.

That is the difference between offering a counterargument and establishing a conclusive refutation.

Final Conclusion: Read the Hebrew, Not Troy’s Imagination

At the beginning of his article, Troy announced that my interpretations were driven by theological presuppositions.

At the end, he congratulates himself for exposing those alleged presuppositions.

What happened between those two announcements?

He correctly explained the maqqef, collected English translations showing that the Word of YHVH frequently refers to divine communication, introduced several speculative reconstructions of biblical encounters, and repeatedly asserted that my interpretation cannot be supported by Hebrew grammar.

What he did not do was demonstrate that the relevant narratives categorically exclude personal distinction.

And this is why his victory announcement is premature.

The Hebrew construct state establishes the grammatical relationship between דבר and YHVH. It does not, by itself, establish or exclude the personal identity of the Word. That question belongs to narrative exegesis and, ultimately, broader biblical theology.

The Hebrew remains what it is, regardless of whether the interpreter is Trinitarian, Unitarian, or anything else.

Genesis 15 still introduces the Word of YHVH within a divine visionary encounter.

First Samuel 3 still describes YHVH coming, standing, and revealing himself through the Word of YHVH.

First Kings 19 still presents a divine speaker instructing Elijah to stand before YHVH, whose passing is then announced.

These texts require careful interpretation. They cannot be resolved by grammatical slogans, personal accusations, or appeals to supposed scholarly ridicule.

Troy is welcome to disagree with my conclusions. He is welcome to challenge my reading of the Hebrew. He is even welcome to demonstrate where my grammatical explanations require greater precision.

That is how biblical scholarship works.

But criticism becomes a genuine refutation only when the evidence actually establishes what the critic claims.

Troy has demonstrated that the Word of YHVH can refer to a divine message. Congratulations, Troy. Nobody familiar with the lexical range of דבר should find that surprising.

The question I raised was whether particular biblical narratives also support understanding the Word as a personal manifestation of YHVH, ultimately to be evaluated in light of the New Testament’s presentation of the Logos.

That question requires substantially more than reminding readers that Hebrew nouns can refer to spoken messages.

So, Troy, you may consider my interpretation bizarre. You may dislike my conclusions. You may even devote another article to speculating about my theological motivations.

But none of those things changes the Hebrew text.

And declaring that you have defeated an interpretation is not the same as demonstrating that you have.

Perhaps next time, less time could be spent examining my supposed intellectual shortcomings and more time examining the actual grammatical and narrative evidence.

Because at the end of the day, Troy, the question was never whether YHVH speaks.

The question is whether the Word of YHVH is presented in certain passages as more than the content of what YHVH speaks.

That was the question when I began my video.

And despite Troy’s lengthy article and rather enthusiastic declaration of victory, it remains the question his rebuttal has not conclusively answered. Nice try, Troy, but no cigar.

What is The Name of God?

By Dr.Al Garza. Taken from the book, “YH?H: The Name of God Hidden and Revealed; Jewish Sources Never Seen or Translated.” By Dr.Al Garza ISBN: 978-0692068748

YHWH vs. YHVH

There is an ongoing debate on the name of God and how to pronounce it. To this day many Christians and Christian scholars all believe God’s name is YaHWeH based on the 4 letter Tetragrammaton, YHWH. This belief is not from Jewish sources but from non-Jewish sources including pagan. I was taught and instructed that the closes we can come to knowing the name of God was by pronouncing it as Yahweh. It is believed the Jews did not know the name nor did they pronounce it during the time of Yeshua-Jesus or after. Even the name “Jehovah,” based on the 4 letters YHVH, is believed to be a name that was used only by Christians during the 16th Century. In Wikipedia, we find this explanation,

“The earliest available Latin text to use a vocalization similar to Jehovah dates from the 13th century….The Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon suggested that the pronunciation Jehovah was unknown until 1520 when it was introduced by Galatinus, who defended its use. ‘Jehovah’ was popularized in the English-speaking world by William Tyndale and other pioneer English Protestant translations such as the Geneva Bible and the King James Version. It is still used in some translations, such as the New World Translation, the American Standard Version, and Young’s Literal Translation, but it does not appear in most mainstream English translations, as the terms “Lord” or “LORD“: used instead, generally indicating that the corresponding Hebrew is Yahweh or YHWH. ” 

The name “Jehovah” is a translation of the Hebrew, Yehovah. So why did the name “Jehovah” get used if Yahweh is the correct understanding of God’s name? Was Jehovah or Yehovah an invention by Christians like Galatinus? Was the name Jehovah unknown until 1520? And what is the correct Hebrew letter, the “w” for Waw or the “v” for Vav? I will show the evidence and Jewish sources that most scholars have never looked at and will set the record straight. The vast majority of Western scholars have never looked at the Jewish sources because they assume the Jews did not and do not know the name of God. Instead, they have relied on Christian and pagan sources to come to the conclusion that Yahweh is the closes if not the correct way to pronounce the name of God.

NOTE: Let me say for the record that even though we can not know for certain the name of God 100% I do believe we can know with almost complete certainty, 99.9%, how the Jews pronounced the name and even preserved it through passing on by tradition. We do not have an ancient tape recorder of Moses or the prophets saying the name, but we can see how the Jews read and pronounced the name of God with the vowel points in the Hebrew Bible. I will also show unseen and untranslated Hebrew documents explaining how the name should be pronounced and how it was hidden from the population.

WAW or VAV?

Before I begin dealing with the name of God I must first demonstrate and show that the sixth letter of the Hebrew alphabet was and is a Vav while the Waw comes from Arabic influence. This is important because the name Yehovah is a “v” sound and not with a “w” sound. Even though the majority of Western scholarship believe the opposite namely that the “w” sound or “waw” is the correct and ancient sixth letter of the Hebrew alphabet and the “v” sound or Vav is based on Yiddish/German influence. What does the evidence show regarding both letters?

It is a known scholarly fact that Hebrew, Aramaic, and Arabic are very similar Semitic Languages. The modern Hebrew “v” sound is equivalent to the Arabic “w” sound in words used in both languages. But how do we know how ancient Hebrew was pronounced? Scholars in the 18th and 20th century went around the world documenting the Hebrew language that was preserved in Jewish communities. All the Hebrew letters were accounted for in pronunciation except for one letter, the sixth letter Vav. According to the Hebrew Encyclopedia, the Jews that preserved the Vav and “v” sound were European Jews, Kurdish Jews, Syrian Jews, Egyptian Jews, Persian Jews, Moroccan Jews and Algerian Jews. The Jews who kept the Waw and “w” sound were the Yemenite Jews and Baghdadi Jews. There were three who kept both sounds and letters. The Libyan Jews, Tunisian Jew, and the Atlas Jews. These were Arabic speaking Jews, but when they read from the Torah, they read it using the Vav or “v” sound. Most of the Jewish communities listed under, keeping the Vav, spoke Arabic as their daily language with the “w” sound, but in their reading of the Torah, they read it with a “v” sound for Vav. Why would they do this if Waw is the correct sixth letter of the Hebrew alphabet?

A Rabbi named Benzion HaKohen wrote a book in 1981 called S’fat Emet (True Language). He believed that the sixth letter in the ancient Hebrew alphabet was a “waw” with a “w” sound. On page 51 of his book, he wrote something very interesting though.

“The letter Vav is pronounced by all the Jews of Ashkenaz (Central and Eastern Europe) as well as all the Sephardim in Europe and the Italian [Jews] like [the English letter] V. So too is its pronunciation by the Sephardim in the lands of the East who do not speak Arabic such as Turkey and Persia. However, the Jews in the Arabic speaking lands are divided, a large portion of them always pronounce it like [the English letter] W and the Arabic Waw, such as the Jews of Yemen and Babylon. And the rest of the lands [with Arabic speaking Jews]…pronounce some of the Vavs as V others as W, namely, a Vav with a dagesh or a Vav that is part of the root such as David, Mitzvah (commandment) they pronounce as a V. However, connective Vav (and) such as chamishah We-esrim (five and twenty), Yitgadal We-yitkadash (may he be magnified and sanctified), We-al Ha-Chasidim (and concerning the righteous), We-al Sh’erit (and concerning the remnant) the Vav is [pronounced] like W…”

This simply means that when the Jews who use both Waw and Vav, namely Libyan Jews, Tunisian Jews, Atlas Mt Jews [Samaritans too], they use one for the prefix “and” as “w” sound and the “v” sound when the letter is part of the root of a word like David. They do not say Dawid when reading the name but say David with a “v” sound. We can see the Arabic influence starting to take over in these four Jewish communities who use both in Torah readings.

Another strong piece of evidence comes from the Academy of the Hebrew Languages in Jerusalem. Here are some of the top Hebrew scholars in the world who, when needed, will invent a modern Hebrew word from an ancient Hebrew word. They confirm that the Arabic language influenced the Jewish communities that preserved the Waw and the ones that preserved both Waw and Vav.

If we look at the possible differences between Hebrew and Arabic, we find a Rabbi named Judah Ibn Kuraish in the 10th Century who said in his R’sallah, page 25, “There is no difference between [Arabic] and Hebrew except…” The Rabbi then listed six letters that are pronounced differently in Arabic and Hebrew and Vav is not one of them. Rabbi Judah was an Arabic speaker as well. This does show that Arabic speaking Jews did pronounce the Vav as a “w” sound. But as the Academy of the Hebrew Language in Jerusalem stated that Arabic did have an influence on the Jewish Arabic speaking communities.

We need to remember that in Hebrew we do have a “v” sound in the form of the Hebrew letter “Bet.” The Bet with a dagesh (a dot in the letter) in it is pronounced with a “b” sound while without the dagesh (no dot in the letter) it is pronounced Vet as a “v” sound. Every Hebrew scholar agrees with this Hebrew letter being both a “b” and “v” sound. So nobody should ever say that Hebrew does not have a “v” sound because that is simply not true with the Hebrew letter Bet. The soft form of the Hebrew letter Bet is with a “v” sound. For example, the name Jacob in Hebrew is Ya’ kov with a soft Bet “v” sound at the end.

For me, I believe the strongest evidence comes from the Hebrew Bible itself. In the book of Ezekiel, there is a Hebrew word for “back.” The Hebrew word is “gav.” It is spelled with the Hebrew letter “Bet” (soft Bet “v” sound) and the with the Hebrew letter “Vav.” We see this homonym in Ezekiel 23:35 and in Ezekiel 43:13. In Ezekiel 23 we see the Hebrew “gav” with the Hebrew “Vav,” and in Ezekiel 43 we see the Hebrew soft “Bet” with a “v” sound. Both verses can be seen in the Aleppo Codex. This would not work if the sixth Hebrew letter were a Waw or “w” sound. Another verse in the Aleppo Hebrew Bible comes from 1Kings 14:9, and Nehemiah 9:26 (Leningrad Codex).

Another Jewish source for the “Vav” comes from the Mishnah, Israel around 200 CE. There is a city mentioned called “Yavneh, ” and it is spelled with both a soft Bet “v” sound and the Hebrew letter Vav “v” sound. You can see both of these spellings in the Mishnah, RH 4:2 (MS.Kaufmann A50 76v) and in the Mishnah, Avot 4:4 (MS.Kaufmann A50 171v). This can also be seen in the Mishnah for the Hebrew word Avazim or geese in English. It is spelled with both the soft Bet “v” sound and the Vav “v” sound.

Lastly, there are Liturgical Hebrew Poems by Elazar Kalir and Yanai in the 6th Century in Israel who wrote using the soft Bet “v” sound and the Vav “v” sound in their prayer poems. This would not work if the Vav were a “w” sound. Hebrew was a spoken language all the way up the 10th Century as attested by Rabbi Eli Ben Judah the Nazirite in Tiberias who said he use to listen to the speech of the simple people and of the masses (in Hebrew) and investigating the language expressed in speech. He did this with his Hebrew Bible to see if there were any contradictions in the rules of Hebrew being spoken. In the Hebrew poem by Kalir, we can see the example being used with the Hebrew word Levi (Levite) with a Vav and the Hebrew word Navi (prophet) with a soft Bet “v” sound. Again, This could not work in Hebrew poetry with a Waw or “w” sound.  The other poet Yanai in Israel used the Hebrew Y’chaveh (tell) with Ye’aveh (swell) using the Vav “v” sound and the soft Bet “v” sound. This can be seen at Cambridge University Taylor-Schechter H 17-4. More examples can be given by these poets, but you get the point.

Now, there was a Jew named Ibn Ezra from the 12th century who did not agree with Kalir’s poem and his use of the soft Bet “v” sound with the Vav “v” sound. Ezra in his Commentary on Ecclesiastes 5 says that Kalir’s use of Levi and Navi are impoverished and meager for connecting the two in his rhymes. Now we must understand the Ezra was an Arabic speaking Jew who did not understand the rhymes of Kalir because Ezra used Waw and not Vav in his poetry.

Conclusion

The majority of evidence for the Vav goes back to the all non-Arabic speaking Jewish communities (20 century), most Arabic speaking Jewish communities (20 century). The Hebrew Bible in the book of Ezekiel, 1Kings, and Nehemiah. The Mishnah (3rd century). The Jewish poets of Elazar Kalir and Yanai (6th century). While the Waw evidence comes from some of the Arabic speaking Jewish communities listed above (20th century). Ibn Ezra (12th century). Sa’adiah Gaon (10 century) and Judah Ibn Kureish (10th century). There is no evidence for the Waw going back beyond the Arabic language in any Jewish sources. The evidence for the Vav goes back to the Hebrew Bible as listed above in connection with the Hebrew soft Bet “v” sound. We can safely say that the Vav, for YHVH, was used in ancient Hebrew instead of the Waw, for YHWH, based on the evidence cited while the Waw being used in ancient Hebrew, as believed, comes from Arabic influence.

THE ORIGIN OF “YAHWEH”

According to the vast majority of Western Hebrew scholars, the origin of the name of Yahweh comes from the preservation of the name from Samaritans. The scholars believe that the Jews stopped using the name before the 1st century CE and only the Samaritans preserved the pronunciation. Again, let us see what Wikipedia has to say.

“In his Hebrew Dictionary, Gesenius supports “Yahweh” (which would have been pronounced [jahwe], with the final letter being silent) because of the Samaritan pronunciation Ιαβε reported by Theodoret, and that the theophoric name prefixes YHW [jeho] and YH [jo] can be explained by the form “Yahweh””

It is interesting to note that Theodoret, who lived in the 5th century, was not familiar with the Hebrew language. When working on translations, he relied on the Syriac, the Greek, and the Septuagint. It is not clear how Theodoret heard and translated the name used by the Samaritans, namely the Greek word Ιαβε. There are over 30 Greek names used for God, and only one of them can be traced back to a Jewish source in the DSS (Dead Sea Scrolls). It is not Ιαβε. What scholars have done is look at non-Jewish sources to determine the name of God. Such sources are Christian Greek, Pagan Greek, Samaritan Greek, Gnostic Coptic and Akkadian. From the 33 Greek names, the scholars picked one, Ιαβε, to identify the name of God, Yahweh, with the help of Theodoret who was not familiar with Hebrew. 

The very first person to actually use the name Yahweh was a Christian named Gilbert Genebrard in 1599 in his Chronographiae page 77. Gilbert relied on Theodoret’s Greek Ιαβε to translate back to Hebrew as Yahweh from the Latin form Iove. This is how the name Yahweh came into existence. But did the Samaritans really speak and preserve the name of God? The evidence will surprise you. 

One of the earliest records of the Samaritans and the name of God comes from Josephus, Antiquities Book 12 Chapter 5 Section 5. In this section of the book, we read the following,

(257) “When the Samaritans saw the Jews under these sufferings, they no longer confessed that they were of their kindred; nor that the temple on Mount Gerizzim belonged to Almighty God. This was according to their nature, as we have already shown. And they now said that they were a colony of Medes and Persians: and indeed they were a colony of theirs. (258) So they sent ambassadors to Antiochus, and an epistle, whose contents are these:—“To king Antiochus the god, Epiphanes, a memorial from the Sidonians, who live at Shechem. (259) Our forefathers, upon certain frequent plagues, and as following a certain ancient superstition, had a custom of observing that day which by the Jews is called the Sabbath. And when they had erected a temple at the mountain called Gerizzim, though, without a name (ἀνώνυμον anonumon), they offered upon it the proper sacrifices. (260) Now, upon the just treatment of these wicked Jews those that manage their affairs, supposing that we were of kin to them, and practiced as they do, make us liable to the same accusations, although we are originally Sidonians, as is evident from the public records. (261) We, therefore, beseech thee, our benefactor and savior, to give order to Apollonius, the governor of this part of the country, and to Nicanor, the procurator of thy affairs, to give us no disturbance, nor to lay to our charge what the Jews are accused of, since we are aliens from their nation and from their customs; but let our temple which at present hath no name (ἀνώνυμον anonumon) at all, be named the Temple of Jupiter Hellenius (Διὸς Ἑλληνίου Dios Helleniou). If this were once done, we should be no longer disturbed but should be more intent on our own occupation with quietness, and so bring in a greater revenue to thee.”

The Samaritans were not Jews but were Gentiles and foreigners. They had adopted the way of the Jews when they were brought into the land and were enemies of the Jews, Ezra chapter 4 and 2Kings 17. Now, if you notice what Josephus says about the Samaritans in the highlighted parts, you will see that they did not pronounce the name of God but had a Temple on Mount Gerizzim without a name, anonumon in Greek. And when they saw the Jews being persecuted by the Romans they sent a letter to the governor saying they were aliens from their nation and their customs. Then the Samaritans go on and say, “…let our temple which at present hath no name (ἀνώνυμον anonumon) at all, be named the Temple of Jupiter Hellenius (Διὸς Ἑλληνίου Dios Helleniou)” Did you catch that? Their current Temple has no name, and they want the Roman God Jupiter Hellenius to be its name. Before this, the Samaritans referred to God as Shema in Aramaic which means “The Name.” But what does Jupiter have to do with the name Yahweh? If we go back to Gesenius regarding the name Yahweh, we continue to read something amazing.

“To give my own opinion, I suppose this word [Yahweh] to be one of the most remote antiquity, perhaps of the same origin as Jovis, Jupiter, and transferred from the Egyptians to the Hebrews.” Gesenius’ Hebrew Chaldee Lexicon Old Testament Scriptures, translated by Tragelles, 1857, page 337.

The Samaritans did speak the name of the Greek God Jupiter. According to Latin scholars, the name Jupiter/Iuppiter is a compound of Iou=God and pater=father or more literally, “Father Yahweh/god.” So is it possible that the Samaritans, who worshipped the Roman God Jupiter, also used the Greek Ιαβε and the Latin form Iove for which we get the name, Yahweh? And is this what Theodoret was reading when he read the name from the Greek, Ιαβε? The evidence seems to point to this explanation and Gesenius seems to agree. The example below shows how to pronounce the Latin “Iove” for Yahweh.

The “I” is pronounced as a double “EE” sound as in the word sheep.
The “O” is pronounced as an “AH” sound as in the word father.
The “V” is pronounced as a “W” as in the word whale.
The “E” is pronounced as “EH” as in the word pet.

There is a coin from Shechem (Nablus), showing the Roman period Samaritan Temple to Jupiter Hellenius (the Greek Jupiter) at the top of Mount Gerizim. This pagan Temple was dedicated to Jupiter during the time of the Maccabee wars, destroyed by one of the Maccabee kings, and then rebuilt by emperor Hadrian. This is the same Hadrian who ordered the Jews not to speak the name of Yehovah and also built a temple to Jupiter on the Temple Mount. Hadrian wanted the Jews to honor Father Ιαβε (Iove/Yahweh), better known today as Jupiter.

THE NAME IN JEWISH SOURCES

“The Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon suggested that the pronunciation Jehovah was unknown until 1520 when it was introduced by Galatinus, who defended its use.” (Wikipedia)

The above quotation is a true statement. I have that Lexicon of BDB and have checked for myself and have noted its accuracy on page 218 in BDB. All the major Western Hebrew scholars agree with BDB about Galatinus and the pronunciation of Jehovah or Yehovah in Hebrew. But was the name really unknown until 1520 CE and its pronunciation? What did Galatinus really have to say regarding the name Jehovah?

“‘…these four letters…if they are read as punctuated…(as you yourself well know) they make Iehova.’ However the Jews did not dare to pronounce it as it was written, but put worth in its place Adonai, which is the same thing as Lord.” (Galatinus, De Arcanis Catholicae, Veritatis 1518, folio 48b)

This was written to a German scholar named Reuchlin who had a Hebrew copy of the Old Testament with the complete vowels under the Hebrew letters “YHVH” for the pronunciation of Yehovah. You can see this in the Hebrew manuscript Codex Reuchlinianus, Joshua 21:1. Well, it is true that Galatinus is the earliest Christian source to use the name Jehovah, he did not invent the name because he states clearly that it was well known from the Hebrew texts as “Yehovah” when writing to Reuchlin. The belief that Jehovah is a Christain invention is still held and taught today. A well-known scholar, Robert J. Wilkinson, made this comment in his book, Tetragrammaton: Western Christians and the Hebrew Name of God on page 46 about the name Jehovah as being “…the distinctly Christian ‘Jehovah.'” and that NO Jews ever believed it was “Jehovah/Yehovah.” Was and is this true? Did no Jew ever believe and say that the name of God was Jehovah/Yehovah? Are there Jewish or Rabbinical sources that say clearly that the name of God is Yehovah? Let us check those sources and see if Dr.Wilkinson is correct.

ADONAI NOTE: There is a belief that that the name Yehovah in Hebrew has the vowel pointing of the title “Adonai.” (The vowel pointings are the dots and dashes underneath and above the Hebrew letters.) This is referred to as a Hybrid form in Hebrew. There are over 200 places in the Hebrew manuscripts that have the complete vowels for the pronunciation of “Yehovah.” The majority of the other times there is a single vowel missing which makes it impossible to pronounce. But, the vowel pointings for Yehovah are not always the same as the vowel pointings for Adonai. There are only a few cases of this type of hybrid form. With the vowel pointing of Adonai, the name would be pronounced Yahovah and not Yehovah. Scholars call this an impossible hybrid form of Hebrew with the Adonai vowels. For an example of a hybrid form in Hebrew, you can look at Jeremiah 42:6 in the Aleppo manuscript and see the Hebrew word “anu” for “we,” and in the margin of the text it says to read it as “anachnu.” The vowels for anachnu are in the shorter word of anu. We see this type of language slang in English with words like can’t for can not or wouldn’t for would not. This type of change in words is called colloquialism. So in Hebrew, we can see the more formal word in the margin without vowels and then see in the more informal word in the text by seeing the vowel points that are supposed to be in the formal. So the reader would know that the informal word in the text should be read the formal way that is in the margin. We see this type of hybrid form again in 2Kings 18:27 were we read two Hebrew curse words being used in the text and in the margin we see the replacement words being used instead. Those replacement words don’t have vowel points because they are inserted into the words in the text to read. This again tells the reader to not read the curse words in the text but to read the replacement words in the margin.

So with the word, Yehovah, scholars believe that the vowels for Adonai are the ones in the name Yehovah in Hebrew making it Yahovah. The problem with this view is that we do not find the same vowels in Yehovah as we do in Adonai. In fact, we only find that type of impossible hybrid form in a few cases (see the Hebrew manuscript in the Russian Library, EVR II B3). The majority of the time the word Yehovah has a different vowel in the first Hebrew letter than Adonai. The scholars’ view does not make sense at this point because if the scribe wanted to put the vowels for Adonai, they would have put them there just like the other hybrid examples above. Nothing was stopping the scribe from doing this type of hybrid form with Yehovah. This simply means that the scribes knew that the vowels for Yehovah were the actual vowels for YHVH in pronouncing his name and not the vowels for Adonai, which they could have easily put in the hybrid form to make it Yahovah. There is no evidence for a hybrid form of Yehovah from Adonai within the Hebrew texts.

Back to Jewish Sources

One Jewish source that is normally overlooked is found in the Talmud regarding the transmission of the name of God once every seven years. This source is not considered among Western scholars because they do not believe the Talmud to be accurate. The Talmud states that the Sages transmit the four-letter name of God to their disciples once in a seven-year period, (Babylonia Talmud, Kidushin 71a, Rabbi Bar Bar Chanah, 250-300 CE.) Other Rabbis would disagree with Rabbi Chanah and say the name was transmitted not once but twice in a seven-year period. This discussion in the Talmud does show that during the 3rd to the 4th century the name of God was being spoken and taught by the Rabbis to their disciples. But there is another Jewish source 1000 years later that confirms the Talmud. There was a book written in 1225, in Hebrew, and was finally published in 2004. The book was called, Book of the Divine Name by Eleazar Roke’ach or Worms. This manuscript was kept a secret by Rabbis before being published for the public to see in a book form. This Rabbi, Eleazar Roke’ach, explains how he received the name of God and how he transmitted to his disciples.

“Y”Y (Yehovah) is the unique honorable and terrifying name…it may only be transmitted to the modest…It may only be transmitted over water…Before the Rabbi teaches his disciple, they must wash in water and immerse in 40 se’ah [of water], donning white clothes. They must fast on the day they learn it, standing in water up to their ankles. The Rabbi will then open his mouth in awe and say, ‘Blessed are you Y”Y (Yehovah), our God, king of the universe. Y”Y (Yehovah) God of Israel, you are one, and your name is one. You commanded us to hide your great name, for your name is terrifying. Blessed are you Y”Y (Yehovah), and blessed is your glorious name forever, the honorable and terrifying name, Y”Y (Yehovah) our God. …Blessed are you Y”Y (Yehovah) who reveals his secret to those who fear him. The Rabbi and his disciple shall place their eyes upon the water and say, ‘…The sound of Y”Y (Yehovah) upon the water.'(Psalm 29:3)…”

The quote above has never been translated into English before until it was discovered by a Hebrew scholar, Nehemiah Gordon. He translated and posted the key parts to this quote to show that there was a tradition of transmitting the name of God down throughout the centuries. This tradition was also confirmed by another Hebrew scholar named Joseph Dan in his book, History of Jewish Mysticism and Esotericism, vol.6 page 561.

Another piece of rare evidence for speaking the name comes from an original autograph manuscript that has never been copied, translated or published. It was written by Joseph Ibn Tzayach in the 15th century and discovered and partly translated by Nehemiah Gordon. It reads as follows,

“Question #43: A certain sage has been uttering the name according to its letters, and a certain Rabbi rebuked him for this. But [the sage] was stubborn in his actions.”

This question to a Rabbi declares that a sage was speaking the name of God and was rebuked by a Rabbi for it but would not stop. The very name of God was well known throughout the centuries. The name was not only transmitted to disciples but was also spoken by Rabbis and even when rebuked by other Rabbis for doing so. But what was the actual name that was being spoken? Do the Rabbis tell us how the name was spoken?

THE NAME “YEHOVAH” IN JEWISH SOURCES

As we have just discovered, there were Rabbis who kept the name of God hidden by transmitting the name YHVH only to their disciples through a water ceremony. But the question now remains is what is the actual name of “YHVH” with vowels? Did the Rabbis believe the name to be Yehovah? Believe it or not, there were 16 Rabbis who did believe that the name of the Almighty was and is Yehovah! These Rabbis are dated from 1300 to the 1800s. We just read earlier from Western scholars that no Jews believed the name of God was Yehovah but that it was Yahweh. And that “Yehovah” was a Christian name for God. So let us see if this is true from Rabbinic sources.

The first source comes from the Tikunei Zohar, c.1300 regarding the secret of the vowels and where they are hidden.

“The secret of the vowels of YHVH, and the secret of the word ‘only in your fathers did YHVH set his love (chashak)‘ (Deuteronomy 10:15) is ‘because he has set his love (chashak) upon Me, therefore will I deliver him…[because he has known my name]’ (Psalm 91:14)”

The first thing we need to understand is that the vowels were a secret. The Jews did not go around yelling the name of using the name in a conversation like we do today. The secret vowels are hidden in a word in Deuteronomy 10:15 and in Psalm 91:14. Only in Hebrew will you understand and see the secret he is referring to in the verses. The common word in both verses is the Hebrew word chashak for love. Now, the normal Hebrew word for love is ahavah. The Hebrew chashak has a meaning of a burning or a longing type of love while ahavah has more of a meaning of respectful manner in treating someone well. But what does chashak have to do with the secret vowels of YHVH?

The Zohar turned the Hebrew word for love, chashak, into an acronym. That acronym being for the vowels Cholam, Sheva, and Kamatz. The very names of the three vowels found in the name YHVH which allows the name to be pronounced as Yehovah! The Zohar confirms the Hebrew manuscripts that contain all three vowels in the name YHVH and not the vowels for Adonai as we discussed earlier.

The next Rabbi to tell us how the name should be pronounced is Rabbi Menachem Tziyoni in the 14th century. In his commentary book on Exodus 3:15 he states the following,

“There is also a secret here received by tradition in the vowels of ‘this is my name forever (le’olam), for they are the vowels of the Great Name.” (New York, Jewish Theological Seminary, MS.1030, folio 46a)

Again, you will only see this secret of the vowels in Hebrew. What are the vowels that Menachem is referring to in the passage? Remeber, this is the passage where God reveals his name to Moses. The word forever in Hebrew, le‘olam, has the very same vowels mentioned. The vowels of the Great Name are Cholam, Sheva, and Kamatz!  Again, the very same vowels mentioned in the Zohar for Yehovah. The Great Name Rabbi Menachem is referring to is Yehovah! We have two separate and independent witnesses for this understanding of the vowels for YHVH. Then, Menachem goes on to say,

“It’s mnemonic is ‘Who in Heaven (Shachak) can measure up to You…’ (Psalm 89:6[7])”

The word for “Heaven”, Shachak, in the passage, is not the more common word in Hebrew, as in the Hebrew word Shamayim for Heaven. And what is Shachak? It is representing the vowels for YHVH, namely Cholam, Sheva, and kamatz. Again, turning the Hebrew letters YHVH into Yehovah. And finally, Menachem finishes with another strong statement.

“‘I will guard the testimony of your mouth, [referring to Le’olam, YHVH]’ (Psalm 119:88[89]) What is ‘the testimony of your mouth’? The palate is the cholam, the teeth are the sheva, and the tongue is the opening, which is the kamatz…thus far the words of the man who revealed the secret to me.”

The secret of the vowels was hidden in Hebrew words that contained them. The Hebrew words like le’olam, shachak, and chashak. These are not the vowels for Adonai and are not the vowels to pronounce Yahweh. These are the vowels for Yehovah. There should be no doubt that Rabbi Menachem believed and taught in secret the vowels for YHVH as he received them. You can also see the manuscript about how he received it in secret in Munich, Bayerische StaatBibliothek, HSS Cod.Hebr. 76-fol.56a-55a.

The next Rabbi we can look at is named Shabbethai Sofer (the scribe) who was the greatest grammarian in the 17th century who collected and corrected the Hebrew prayer books. He wrote a letter to another Rabbi on September 14, 1608, where he states the following,

“Is it not known…the saying of the sages [referring to the Babylonian Talmud, Pesachim 50a] ‘In This World, it is written YH[VH] and read Ado[nai]. In the World to Come, it will be written YH[VH] and read YH[VH].’…And behold, when it is read as YH[VH], in the World to Come then its vowels will be Shach“ak. (Sheva , Cholam, and Kamatz)

Once again we read the very same vowels being used to pronounce the name of YHVH as Yehovah. There can be little doubt about this usage of the vowels Sheva, Cholam, and Kamatz for YHVH. Now, the famous Rabbi who Shabbethai Sofer was writing to, namely Rabbi Meir Mahar”am of Lublin 1608, gave a response to Shabbethai. This response is historical regarding the vowels and the name of YHVH.

“Know, my beloved, how extremely difficult it is to put things like this in writing and even more so a letter sent about from place to place…[concerning] the vowels of the Tetragrammaton, which are Sheva Cholam Kamatz…I found in the words of my grandfather…our teacher Rabbi Asher [Lemel], head of the Beth Den of Krakow…he wrote a holy book…called Emek Ha Brachah, but because of its immense holiness it was never printed…that it not be used by those who are not worthy.”

At this point, Rabbi Meir Maha”am quotes his grandfather, Asher of Krakow and says,

“This is what it says in chapter 34: …[concerning] the Tetragrammaton…its vowels received from Sinai are Sheva Cholam Kamatz…”

This is a quote from a lost book that has yet to be found. Once again it confirms the exact vowels for the Tetragrammaton, YHVH. The name should be pronounced as Yehovah. Now, at the end of this letter Rabbi Meir Maha”am makes a request. He states the following,

“I have one request, that you hide this letter in a pure and holy place and not allow it to be passed around here and there…”

Obviously, his disciples did not keep his wishes. After he died he disciples collected all his writings and put it out as one of his responses collection. These Hebrew letters and all the others listed here can be viewed in Hebrew in a database that has collected them. In moving forward to a more modern Rabbi we come to Rabbi Samuel David Luzzatto (Shad’ al) of 1834. This Rabbi was aware of the many different names for YHVH including Gesenius belief of the name Yahweh. The Rabbi writes,

“Many have researched how this name was read…and what its original vowels were…it seems to me, that the vowels with which it is vocalized in most places [YHVH with the vowels Sheva Cholam Kamatz] are the original vowels…The kamatz of Yah[The first two letter, YH] changes to Sheva when the word elongated.”

Rabbi Luzzatto is confirming once again the secret that was kept regarding the real vowels behind the name of YHVH, Yehovah. He knew Gesenius’s beliefs and others who were trying to figure out the correct way to pronounce the name of God. He even corrects the basics of Hebrew grammar regarding the shorter version of YHVH, YH with Kamatz, and how it changes to its true form, the Sheva, when it is elongated. Some examples are as follows.

Short-Gadol Long-Gedolim

Short-Katan Long-Ketanim

Short-Yah Long-Yehovah

This is basic Hebrew grammar that the Rabbi is explaining regarding the shorter version of the name Yah and how the vowel changes when elongated. So Yah becomes Yehovah. And yet another more modern Rabbi named Jacob Bachrach in 1890 also explained the true vowels against the vowels of Adonai as some Western scholars have and still believe. He writes,

“If the vowels in the Tetragrammaton were indeed the vowels of Adonai, precision would have required putting a Chataf-Patach under the Yod for the Aleph of Adonai…the vowels Sheva, Cholam, Kamatz specifically belong to the Unique Name alone. There is not a single vowel here that comes from or remains from, a reference to the title Adonai, or even hints at it. With these vowels, the priests in the Temple used to call on the Unique Name the way it is written …These vowels…are its own vowels intended for the Kohanim in the Temple to call [on the name]…The way [The Name] is written, with its letters and vowels Sheva Cholam Kamatz, are eternal, for if there was a Temple standing today…even now the Kohanim would be calling on it the way it is written, with its letters and these vowels, and so too the High Priest ten times on Yom Kippur…According to the rulings that have come down to us, there is no prohibition from the Torah to speak the Name the way it is written. However, the custom not to pronounce the Name the way it is written is very old…thus…it is not right to [pronounce the Name], but there is no prohibition from the Torah…”

Once again we read the true vowels that belong to YHVH and how the vowels of Adonai were not considered in Hebrew or part of the grammar in Hebrew. There are a total of 16 Rabbis who confirm the name of YHVH as Yehovah and not Yahweh. 14 of the Rabbinic sources are written in Hebrew and have never been translated or viewed before by Western scholars. This explains the misunderstanding to try and dismiss the name Jehovah or Yehovah as being a Christian name for God. This is far from the truth as we have seen and read.

CONCLUSION

The sources I have provided have been verified by viewing the digital photos displayed by Nehemiah Gordon who brought all this to light concerning the Jewish sources for the name Yehovah. I feel it is my duty as a Biblical Scholar and believer in Yeshua-Jesus, who is my Jewish Messiah, to share these findings. My hope is that the true name of God be brought to light and into the world so that we may glorify his holy and mighty name, Yehovah forever, amen and amen.

“They will call upon my name, and I will answer them. I will say, ‘They are my people’; and they will say, ‘Yehovah is my God…And Yehovah will be king over all the earth. On that day Yehovah will be one and his name one.” Zech.13:9, 14:9

cropped-gods-name-jehovah-e141702360099121.png

“GRACE” It is NOT what you think.

Grace, “A masculine noun meaning favor, grace, acceptance. Meaning an unmerited favor or regard in God’s sight.” This is the most common understanding of the word “grace” in our pulpits today. Every modern preacher I have seen on TV and heard on the radio has given that meaning while preaching. Even in most concordances and lexicons, that meaning is conveyed. But where does that word come from in the Bible? What is the origin of the word “grace” and what was the true meaning and understanding of the word? Before the New Testament was written how did the Jews understand “grace” from the Hebrew Bible? The majority of Christian believers will be shocked to learn that “grace” did not have the meaning of “unmerited favor” as understood today.

When God was about to destroy the earth by a flood, he spoke to Noah and told him to make an ark and put his family inside of it for safety. God warned Noah and protected him and his family from the flood. But why?

Gen.6:8  ונח מצא חן בעיני יהוה (Bold Hebrew letters for the name Noah and favor)

“But Noah found favor (grace) in the eyes of YHVH.”

The word “favor” in Genesis 6:8 is the word grace that is used to teach unmerited favor. Genesis 6:8 is the first time we see the word grace used in the Hebrew Bible. But there is something in the Hebrew that you can not see in the English translations. First, let me point out that Noah found or as the literal Hebrew puts it, attained/acquired favor or grace.  The Hebrew word מצא (matsa) is best translated as attained or acquired. Noah acquired favor/grace from God. Does that sound like unmerited favor? How did Noah acquire favor or grace?

Gen.6:9  אלה תולדת נח נח אישׁ צדיק תמים היה בדרתיו את־האלהים התהלך־נח

“These are the generations of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless in his generation. Noah walked with God.” (ESV)

Noah attained or acquired grace from God because he had a relationship with God. Noah was a truthful man who walked with God. This is why God instructed him to build an ark for his protection. We also read this in Genesis 7:1, “Then YHVH said to Noah, “Go into the ark, you and all your household, for I have seen that you are righteous before me in this generation.” Noah acted righteously before YHVH and YHVH saw and gave him protection or grace. But what about the word grace?

The Hebrew word for grace is חֵן (CheN) with two Hebrew letters, the Chet and the Nun. In ancient Hebrew, the letters represented a word and a picture. The first letter in the Hebrew word for grace represents a fence that surrounds and protects. This is why the Hebrew picture for chet looks like a fence. And the second Hebrew letter, the nun, means life or to propagate, Psalm 72:17, and the Hebrew word picture resembles a symbol for life. Both Hebrew letters can be found in the Hebrew Bible as a word by themselves. Now, if we take that same Hebrew word for grace, CheN, and write it backward, it will spell the Hebrew name for Noah. The Nun and the Chet combined make the name Noah in English. So, Noah in the eyes of YHVH, like a backward reflection, makes the word grace or favor in Hebrew. Noah (Nun, Chet) attained or acquired grace (Chet, Nun) in the eyes of YHVH. This makes sense in the Hebrew word picture because Noah attained God’s protection of his life by building the ark. The ark is a picture of grace, God’s protection. This is the very foundation of the word grace or favor without the meaning of unmerited since Noah attained protection from God by having a personal relationship with him before the flood. The majority of Christians who believe “unmerited favor” teaching try very hard to explain this away because it does not fit their theology of grace. Especially those in the Reform movement.

THE REST OF THE OLD TESTAMENT

If we continue to follow the Hebrew word for grace in the Old Testament, we will see a pattern develop. In the entire first five books of Moses, the Torah, the word grace or favor is always preceded by the word “found” which in Hebrew means attained or acquired. This is also true in the Writings and the Prophets until we get to Psalms and Proverbs. The English Bible translators begin to translate the Hebrew word for grace as graceful, adornment and charm. About 95%+ of the entire Hebrew Bible  reads, “…found favor…” or more literally, “…attained/acquired favor/protection…” The Jewish and Hebrew understanding was that an individual can attain God’s protection and mercy. The phrase was also understood and used toward kings and men in the Hebrew Old Testament. It was never defined or interpreted as unmerited favor. If one reads merely and follows the Hebrew word throughout the Old Testament, you can not help but see the pattern. Here are some examples.

Gen.18:3  “and said, (Abraham) “O Lord, if I have found favor in your sight, do not pass by your servant.” 

Gen.19:19 (Lot speaking) “Behold, your servant has found favor in your sight, and you have shown me great kindness in saving my life. But I cannot escape to the hills, lest the disaster overtake me and I die.”

Exo.33:12  “Moses said to the LORD, “See, you say to me, ‘Bring up these people,’ but you have not let me know whom you will send with me. Yet you have said, ‘I know you by name, and you have also found favor in my sight.’”

Jdg.6:17  “So Gideon said to Him, “If now I have found favor in Your sight, then show me a sign that it is You who speak with me.”

These are just a few passages that show part of the 95%+ of texts that prove my findings. The Old Testament Hebrew Bible supports that favor or grace is not grounded in the teaching of unmerited favor. Any person can search out for themselves the passages that are part of the 95%+ and see the pattern of the phrase “…found favor in your sight…” So what about the New Testament? Does it support the unmerited favor teaching?

NOTE: The word “grace” in the Hebrew is never connected with receiving eternal life. In other words, “grace” does not equal eternal life. It is used to convey God’s protection and blessing to his people who follow his commandments or Torah. If they do not keep his word, then grace (God’s blessing and protection) is removed, and they will be put under God’s curse. Also, the Hebrew word “CheN” for grace is translated in the Greek LXX as “charin” which is the same as the New Testament Greek word “charis” or “chariti.”

THE NEW TESTAMENT

As we come to the New Testament, we must remember that all we have, for the most part, are Greek copies and fragments. The Greek is not the same as Hebrew. Greek is an abstract language that comes from Semitic languages. Hebrew is concrete and is based on pictures and words for each letter while Greek does not. With that note, let us look at one of the foundation verse that is used to teach unmerited favor/grace in the New Testament. It comes from Ephesians 2:8-9.

Eph.2:8-9  “For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.”

This verse is part of the foundation for “unmerited favor” teaching. But how do we get the word grace translated into these verses? It is a body of scholars who come together to decide how to translate the Hebrew and the Greek into English that will be easier to read for the reader. In Ephesians 2:8 we see the word grace in the passage. But does that word mean unmerited favor in the Greek? How is it translated in the rest of the New Testament? The Greek word for grace in Ephesians 2:8 is χάρις (charis). The shock to most Christian believers will be that charis is not always translated grace with the understanding of unmerited favor. In the New American Standard Bible, the Greek word charis is translated gracious work in 2Corinthias,

2Co.8:6-7 “So we urged Titus that as he had previously made a beginning, so he would also complete in you this gracious work as well. But just as you abound in everything, in faith and utterance and knowledge and in all earnestness and in the love we inspired in you, see that you abound in this gracious work also.” (NASB)

One translation, the ESV, has “act of grace” while others translate with either grace or work. In fact, within the New Testament, we find the Greek word being translated in numerous ways. We see the translation of credit, benefit, blessing, thanks, gratitude, concession, etc. The Greek word is never used to mean just grace. Why? If this word is supposed to mean “unmerited favor” in connection with eternal life and salvation then why does it change in meaning when used in other verses? This answer is simple. Men have decided to translate the Greek word into grace into the verses they believe it has the meaning of the unmerited favor teaching. Ephesians 2:8 can be translated as follows,

Eph. 2:8-9  “For by His gracious work you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works (your works), so that no one may boast.”

This translation can efficiently work because Jesus did all the work for us by fulfilling the Torah and dying on the cross for the atonement of sins. We are blessed with eternal life through and by his works and not by ours. Remember, the Old Testament is the foundation for the New Testament and both need to be consistent and in harmony. If we understand that grace is a blessing and work from God to us for eternal life, then it fits the consistency of the Old Testament usage as well. Even in Romans, the word grace can be retranslated and still fit perfectly with how we receive eternal life.

Rom.3:23 “…for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,”

Rom.3:23 “…for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his gracious work/blessing as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,”

Both of these passages are true if we understand grace to mean, not unmerited favor, but God’s work and blessing in our lives. We are justified by the work of Jesus as a gift to us. But for us to receive this blessing from God by his work through Jesus, we need to have faith and believe in the one who completed the work. This is why Jesus can be full of grace or blessings and how we can fall from grace or from his blessings. Below are more examples how the Greek word charis is translated in most Bibles and others retranslated by me.

Luk.6:32 “But if you love those who love you, what credit is that to you? For even sinners love those, who love them.” (English Majority Text Version) See also verse 33-34, “credit.”

Luk.17:9 “Does he thank the servant because he did what was commanded?” (ESV)

Act.18:27 “And when he wished to cross to Achaia, the brothers encouraged him and wrote to the disciples to welcome him. When he arrived, he greatly helped those who through grace[His gracious work] had believed,” (My translation added)

Rom.1:5 “Through Christ, God gave me the special work of an apostle—to lead people of all nations to believe and obey him. I do all this to honor Christ.” (Easy To Read Version)

Rom.3:24 “being justified as a gift by His grace [gracious work]through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;” (NASB-brackets added)

Gal.2:21 “I do not nullify the grace [The work/blessing] of God, for if righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.” (ESV-brackets added)

I can continue to post verse after verse showing that if we consider the Greek word charis to be understood as gracious work, blessing with God’s protection that all still fit the context and the meaning from the Old Testament. In many of the New Testament salutations we see “…grace and peace…” or “The grace of our Lord Jesus…” which is better understood from the Hebrew old Testament greetings of “Blessings…” We should be translating those New Testament verses “…blessings and peace…” and “The blessings of our Lord Jesus…” This fits best when we consider the Jewish understanding of the Hebrew Bible.

The word “grace” in the New Testament as been overused dramatically that it has lost its true meaning which is grounded in the Genesis 6:8 and the rest of the Old Testament. The challenge will be to abandon the modern tradition of “unmerited favor” or something for nothing teaching and realize that God grants us eternal life by our faith and trust in him through Jesus the Messiah. In doing so, we receive his blessings and protection in the form of grace and mercy. The teaching of eternal life comes from many New Testament verses with the condition of believing in Jesus as the son of man and as Messiah. In fact, the Gospel of John was written for this very purpose.

Joh.20:31 “but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” (NASB)

Joh.3:15 “…that whoever believes in him (the son of man) may have eternal life.” (ESV)

Joh.6:40 “For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” (ESV)

Joh.6:47 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life.” (ESV)

In other parts of the New Testament, we see another connection to eternal life in regards to belief and seeking. This does not suggest that we receive eternal life by works. But there is an action on our part of coming to God in trust and faith in regards to Jesus. To a Jew, trust and belief in Jesus as Messiah is NOT considered work as some may suppose.

Rom.2:7 “…to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;” (ESV)

In other verses in the New Testament, we see the connection of eternal life and grace being used. Here are a couple of examples found in Romans and one in Titus.

Rom.5:21 “…so that, as sin reigned in death, grace [His work/blessing] also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.” (ESV)

Rom.6:23 “For the wages of sin is death, but the gift [The work/blessing] of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.” (English Majority Test Version)

Tit.3:7 “so that being justified by His grace [His gracious work] we would be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.” (ESV)

Paul continues his teaching to Timothy regarding eternal life by saying,

“Yet for this reason, I found mercy, so that in me as the foremost, Jesus Christ might demonstrate His perfect patience as an example for those who would believe in Him for eternal life.” (1Timothy 1:16, NASB)

In conclusion, I want to make something very clear. I am not saying we as believers in Jesus the Messiah are saved or justified by our works that we do. Eternal life is in Jesus the Son of God, and by believing and trusting in him and the work, he has done for us. In doing so, we receive the blessing and protection of God in the form of grace and mercy which is the true meaning of grace in the New Testament and in the Old Testament.

1Jn.5:11 “And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.” (ESV) Amen and amen!

 

 

ONE Way

Posted by Al Garza PhD

For over 25 years of studying the Bible there are always believers who come to me and ask if I know for certain that Yeshua-Jesus is the only way to heaven. For students of the Bible this question is easy to answer with a, “Yes!.”  But for others, who maybe don’t have much knowledge of the Bible, this question might be difficult to answer with certainty.  We do know Yeshua-Jesus stated, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.”  Yeshua-Jesus made the greatest claim of all time. The only way to the Father is through him and him alone.  That means that there is no other person in history who can lead you to God.  Yeshua-Jesus is the only way, the truth, and the life that leads to God.  Regardless if you read this in English or in Greek the plain meaning of what Yeshua-Jesus said is clear.  Now there are some scholars in the west who think Yeshua-Jesus spoke to his disciples in Greek.  Unfortunately this is assumed by outdated sources.  Jewish scholars in the east, namely in Israel, have no doubt that Yeshua-Jesus, being a Jew and Rabbi, spoke and taught his disciples in Hebrew.  For more on this please go to link, Jesus spoke Hebrew, R.Steven Notley.

I personally believe Yeshua-Jesus spoke Hebrew to his disciples because the type of parables he spoke are only found in one language, Hebrew.  Rabbis spoke parables to their students in Hebrew and only Hebrew.  The reason I am making this point is because if we take Yeshua-Jesus’s words and translate them back to Hebrew we can see a hidden message within the statement.  In Rabbinic and Jewish studies it is common to look for hidden words that might give a more deeper meaning to the what is being said in Hebrew.  The words of Yeshua-Jesus in Hebrew would like this,

אנכי הדרך והאמת והחיים

The Hebrew above is the phrase “I am the way, and the truth, and the life.”  I put three bold letters in the Hebrew for a reason.  Those three Hebrew letters, dalet, aleph and chet are the first letters for the words “way”, “truth” and “life.”  The way in Hebrew is derek, the truth in Hebrew is amet and the life is chayim.  Rabbinic Hebrew scholars look at Hebrew words and letters to find hidden and deeper understanding.  In this case, we can look at what Yeshua-Jesus said and find something deeper in the phrase.

Every Hebrew Bible reading Jew knows Deuteronomy 6:4, “Hear O’ Israel, YHVH our God, YHVH is One.”  Yeshua-Jesus made the claim in John 10:30 to be one with the father, “I and the Father, we are one.”  The Hebrew word for “one” is echad in both Deuteronomy and in John 10:30.  God is not only one but he is the one way to salvation.  So, when we look at what Yeshua-Jesus said in John 14:6 regarding being the only way to the Father we find the Hebrew word for one, echad, in the statement.

If we take those three Hebrew letters for way, truth and life and put them together they spell the Hebrew word echad or one in English.  Yeshua-Jesus is not only one with the Father but he is also the “ONE (echad) Way” to the Father as he stated to his disciples.  God is one.  Yeshua-Jesus is one with the Father and he is the one way to the Father.  All of which spell the Hebrew word echad for one.  This is why it is important to look at the words of Yeshus-Jesus in the language he spoke when he was teaching his disciples, namely Hebrew.  With great certainty we can know as a believer that Yeshua-Jesus is the only way to eternal life and to the Father directly.  If we believe and trust in Yeshua-Jesus then we can have peace, hope and life in him. Shalom.